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CDC Set 2 Vol 2
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Exam of 28 pages for the course CDC Set 2 Vol 2 at CDC Set 2 Vol 2 (CDC Set 2 Vol 2)
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CDC SET 2 VOL 2 QUESTIONS &VERIFIED RATIONALIZED ANSWERS
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1. (201) What is a requirement for military explosives? - Raw materials must be cheap.
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2. (201) Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce - vapors.
3. (201) The rate of transformation for high explosives is between - 3,200 and 28,000 feet per second.
4. (201) The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called -
deflagration.
5. (201) What are the detonation products? - Heat, light, gases, and pressure.
6. (202) How do we classify explosive train primers? - By the way they are initiated.
7. (202) How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge? - Increase standoff distance.
8. (202) For what purpose do we use a shaped charge? - To produce an explosive penetration of a solid
object.
9. (203) The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are - candlepower, color, weather, and
light.
10. (203) Name two types of effects for signals. - Light and smoke.
11. (204) What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN-MK13 signal? - Smoke and flare.
,12. (204) How is the A P25S-5A distress signal kit ignited? - Percussion primer.
13. (204) How much light does the M127A1 signal produce? - 50,000 candlepower.
14. (205) What effects do the booby-trap simulators provide? - Flash, illumination, and a whistling sound.
15. (206) What is the largest caliber ammunition that we classify as "small arms"? - Caliber .50.
16. (206) What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle? - 410.
17. (206) What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition? - The wad can cause injury.
18. (206) What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge? - Cartridge case, primer, bullet,
and propellant.
19. (207) Name three classifications of Air Force grenades. - Service, practice, and training.
20. (207) What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have? - Composition B.
21. (207) What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade? - Black powder.
22. (207) Which chemical filler is used in the AN-M8 smoke grenade? - Hexachloroethane.
23. (208) Which mine do we commonly call the "claymore"? - M18A1.
24. (208) How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger zone? - 250 meters.
25. (208) How much force is required to function the M14 anti-personnel mine? - 20 to 35 pounds.
, 26. (209) What mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying? - Medium.
27. (210) What color is the most common for military safety fuze? - Green.
28. (210) What device is used to initiate time fuse? - M60 Igniter.
29. (210) What substance is the M112 demo block made of? - Composition C-4.
30. (211) The main types of fuze actions are impact, time, and - proximity.
31. (211) Where is a proximity fuze placed on the bomb? - Nose.
32. (211) In an electronically timed fuze, what component replaces the arming vanes used in
mechanically timed fuzes? - Electric charging assembly.
33. (211) The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems,
and strikers while the fuze is being handled? - Cotter pins.
34. (212) How do you set the firing delay times in a mechanically timed M904 nose fuze? - Changing the
delay element.
35. (212) What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuze? - T45.
36. (212) Where in a bomb body is the M905 fuze installed? - The tail fuze well.
37. (212) The FMU-54-series tail fuzes are used in - MK80-series general-purpose bombs with an air
inflatable retarder.
38. (213) With electrical fuzes, what device is used in place of arming wire? - Battery-firing device.
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