POSC 391 Midterm Exam | Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions)

POSC 391 Midterm Exam | Questions and Answers (Complete Solutions) Diversity of the planning group often results in more comprehensive and creative planning All of the following statements about plan approval and dissemination are true except for A. Each plan must be presented to the Department of Homeland Security for final approval. B. "Sunshine" laws may require that a copy of the plan be placed in a location accessible to the public. C. It is important to make the plan available in alternate formats to ensure access by the whole community. D. Official promulgation is vital to gaining the widest acceptance possible for the plan. Select the True statement A. An emergency plan only needs to be updated when there is a revision in the laws, codes, or ordinances that govern emergency planning. B. An emergency plan is considered up-to-date if it has been reviewed at least once in the last decade. C. The best time to review and update an emergency plan is during a major activation of the plan, while personnel are focused on the policies and procedures. D. An emergency plan should be reviewed and updated at least every 1 or 2 years and after key events, including plan activation. The planning process set out in CPG 101: A. Is best suited for strategic planning rather than operational planning. B. Is suitable for planning by all levels of government. C. Applies only to development of new plans, not plan updates. D. Is not appropriate for use by private entities. An emergency operations plan: A. Focuses on standard operating procedures for responding to one single type of incident. B. Serves primarily as a budgeting document for acquiring emergency management resources. C. Establishes the overall authority, roles, and functions performed during incidents. D. Is required in order for a jurisdiction to receive Federal assistance with mitigation initiatives. In the plan development step of emergency planning, the planning team generates, compares, and selects possible course of action; identifies required resources; and A. Estimates capabilities and shortfalls. B. Generates a detailed budget. C. Analyzes threats and hazards faced by the jurisdiction. D. Creates a schedule for plan revision. When completing a threat/hazard analysis, you should do all of the following actions, except for A. Avoid recent history or official records since they may not always be the best indicator of the presence or severity of a threat or hazard. B. Use existing THIRAs, hazard analyses, threat assessments, and homeland security strategies to identify initial threats and hazards. C. Ask community organizations, critical infrastructure owners and operators, and other nontraditional partners to assist with the process. D. Use online data sources and local subject-matter experts to understand potential threats and hazards. What role does the private sector play in emergency planning? A. The private sector has no appropriate role in the planning process. B. The private sector's only emergency management role is provision of resources during an emergency. C. The private sector's best role is to provide the business perspective during final review of the plan. D. The private sector should be involved as a stakeholder in the planning process. Evaluation of the effectiveness of an emergency plan: A. Is best done by an external evaluator comparing the plan to a set of national standards. B. Involves a combination of training events, exercises, and real-world incidents. C. Should be done by a task force once every five years to ensure compliance with the law. D. Typically is only needed when performance problems become evident among response personnel. T/F The planning team should represent the many facets of the community, including governmental and nongovernmental entities, the private sector, infrastructure owners and operators, and civic leaders True Which of the following is a false statement? A. Preparedness derives from building and sustaining the capabilities that are necessary to deal with great risks. B. Preparedness activities take place before, during, and after an incident. C. Preparedness requires development of a separate emergency plan for each identified threat and hazard. D. Preparedness results from building and sustaining core capabilities in each of five mission areas. An emergency operations plan delineates: A. How people and property will be protected during an emergency. B. Agency coordination during long-term recovery efforts. C. The importance of intelligence about imminent threats in thwarting terrorist attacks. D. How predisaster choices can manage or reduce long-term risk. T/F A key planning principle is that plans are most coherent when developed by a single emergency management professional and then presented to the response community for approval False developed by a team Step 4 of the planning process is plan development. This step involves generating courses of action, identifying required resources, and: A. Obtaining approval from Federal authorities. B. Estimating capabilities and shortfalls. C. Eliminating courses of action that would require outside resources. D. Determining what threats and hazards the jurisdiction faces. T/F The emergency operations plan establishes the overall authority, roles, and functions performed during incidents True T/F The goal of preparedness is a secure and resilient Nation with the capabilities required across the whole community to prevent, protect against, mitigate, respond to, and recover from threats and hazards that pose the greatest risk True When an emergency operations plan has been developed and approved, what step remains to be done? A. No steps remain; the process is complete. B. Determine goals and objectives. C. Inform the response community that a plan has been developed. D. Implement and maintain the plan. T/F When possible, the planning team should build on existing assessments such as Hazard Identification and Risk Assessments prepared by the States, major urban areas, and other government entities True What part of an emergency operations plan typically provides an overview of the emergency management and response program? A. Threat/hazard/incident-specific annex B. Supporting annex C. Basic plan D. Standard operating procedure Detailed guidance for developing emergency plans can be found in A. National Response Framework. B. Presidential Policy Directive (PPD) 8. C. National Preparedness Goal. D. Comprehensive Preparedness Guide (CPG) 101. A benefit of forming a collaborative planning team is that it A. Makes coordination with State and Federal plans unnecessary. B. Eliminates the involvement of elected officials who could politicize the process. C. Removes individual accountability if problems arise during incident response. D. Builds trust and working relationships that will be needed during emergencies. T/F The process for developing emergency operations plans is outlined in Comprehensive Preparedness Guide (CPG 101) True Which of the following statements is false? A. Emergency plans clarify how functions and activities are to be coordinated and how they complement one another. B. Emergency plans communicate what should happen, why it is done, and what to expect from it. C. Emergency plans delineate roles and responsibilities. D. Emergency plans ensure that all resources can be obtained through internal sources within the jurisdiction. T/F Exercises are a means of learning what works and what does not work as planned True T/F Within THIRA, national capability targets are set for jurisdictions to implement True T/F Team planning is most effective when the group leader develops the overall plan and then solicits feedback from the group False An effective way to test and evaluate plans, policies, procedures, and coordination of decision making is by A. Providing job aids. B. Presenting seminars and briefings. C. Conducting exercises. D. Organizing on-the-job training. What role do nongovernmental organizations (NGOs) play in emergency planning? A. NGOs' best role is to provide their constituencies' perspectives during final review of the plan. B. NGOs have no appropriate role in the planning process. C. NGOs should be involved as a stakeholder in the planning process. D. NGOs' only role is providing volunteers during an emergency. All of the following are important emergency management planning principles EXCEPT for: A. Planning must be community based, representing the whole population and its needs. B. Planning results in unique plans for each type of threat or hazard. C. Planning should be flexible enough to address both traditional and catastrophic incidents. D. Planning is fundamentally a process to manage risk. The emergency planning process includes the following steps: 1) Form a collaborative planning team; (2) Understand the situation; (3) ________; (4) Develop the plan; (5) Prepare, review, and get approval; and (6) Implement and maintain the plan. Select the missing Step 3 from below: A. Step 3. Submit an outline for Federal approval. B. Step 3. Conduct a hazard analysis. C. Step 3. Determine goals and objectives. D. Step 3. Assign responsibilities for mission assignments. An emergency plan element that focuses on special planning needs generated by a bioterrorism attack is an example of a/an: A. Basic plan. B. Threat/hazard/incident-specific annex. C. Implementing instruction. D. Supporting annex. In the emergency planning process outlined in CPG 101, generating, comparing, and selecting possible courses of action to achieve desired outcomes is part of: A. Step 2, Understand the situation B. Step 3, Determine goals and objectives C. Step 4, Develop the Plan D. Step 6, Plan implementation and maintenance Responsibility for emergency preparedness: A. Is divided between the Federal and State governments. B. Rests solely at the local jurisdictional level. C. Is shared by the whole community. D. Falls strictly to individuals and households. Select the TRUE statement: A. Jurisdiction information is not relevant to threat/hazard analysis because it doesn't reveal anything about capabilities. B. Each time an emergency plan is updated, the team should discard the existing information and start from scratch to be sure the analysis is based on current data. C. Analyzing threat/hazard and jurisdiction information enables the planning team to identify capabilities needed to manage associated risks. D. When developing an emergency plan, only information from Federal government sources should be used, to ensure the plan is based on reliable and universally applicable data. What part of an emergency operations plan typically documents the methods, procedures, actions, and responsibilities for a critical operational function (such as communications or mass care) during emergency operations? A. Threat/hazard/incident-specific annex B. Implementing instructions C. Basic plan D. Supporting annex T/F THIRA is a comprehensive process for identifying threats and hazards along with their associated capabilities. True When building a collaborative planning team: A. Each mission area should be represented on the core team. B. Members should work toward separate goals to promote diversity of viewpoint. C. How meetings are conducted has little impact on productivity. D. Holding stakeholders accountable usually stifles collaboration. Planning teams are most effective when: A. Membership is confined to people in the same agency or organization. B. The group finds common ground on which to build consensus for action. C. The group leader takes primary responsibility for decision making. D. Community groups with competing views are excluded from the team. Which of the following presents an integrated set of guidance, programs, and processes that enables the whole community to meet the National Preparedness Goal? A. National Preparedness System B. Community Response System C. State Training and Exercise System D. Incident Command System What are core capabilities? A. Individual competencies that each emergency management professional should possess in order to receive credentials. B. Skills, knowledge, and aptitudes that jurisdictions must develop before they can begin the planning process. C. Standards that jurisdictions must meet in order to receive grant funding. D. Distinct elements that are essential for the execution of each mission area. Which organizations should be involved in communications planning? A. Area Command B. MAC Groups C. All Stakeholders D. Planning Section Which Command Staff member serves as the incident command’s point of contact for organizations not included in the Incident Command or Unified Command? A. Safety Officer B. Liaison Officer C. Area Commander D. Public Information Officer The ______________________ are incident management personnel that the Incident Commander or Unified Command assign to directly support the command function. A. Strike Team Leaders B. General Staff C. Command Staff D. Task Force Leaders Which of the following is an EOC function? A. Coordinating plans and determining resource needs B. Collecting, analyzing, and sharing information C. Providing coordination and policy direction D. All of the above Use of communications and information systems that are familiar to users is a part of which key principle? A. Interoperability B. Security C. Reliability, Scalability, and Portability D. Resilience and Redundancy Which ICS structure enables different jurisdictions to jointly manage and direct incident activities with a single incident action plan? A. Unified Command B. Joint Information Center C. Area Command D. Incident Management Team Which resource management task deploys or activates personnel and resources? A. Order and Acquire B. Track and Report C. Identify Requirements D. Mobilize Which resource management activity establishes common definitions for capabilities of personnel, equipment, teams, supplies, and facilities? A. Qualifying, certifying, and credentialing personnel B. Acquiring, storing, and inventorying resources C. Identifying and Typing Resources D. Planning for Resources T/F NIMS is applicable to all stakeholders with incident related responsibilities. true Which resource management task determines the type, quantity, receiving location, and users of resources? A. Identify Requirements B. Mobilize C. Track and Report D. Order and Acquire EOCs receive senior level guidance from: A. Joint Information System (JIS) B. Incident Command System C. MAC Groups D. Joint Information Center Which NIMS Command and Coordination structures are offsite locations where staff from multiple agencies come together? A. Joint Information System (JIS) B. Emergency Operations Centers (EOCs) C. Incident Command Structure (ICS) D. MAC Group Which NIMS Management Characteristic includes developing and issuing assignments, plans, procedures, and protocols to accomplish tasks? A. Management by Objectives B. Comprehensive Resource Management C. Modular Organization D. Manageable Span of Control Which EOC configuration aligns with the on-scene incident organization? A. Incident Support Model (ISM) structure B. Departmental Structure C. Strategic Joint Command Structure D. ICS or ICS-like EOC structure Each ICS General Staff is led by a(n) ____________ who reports directly to the Incident Commander or Unified Command. A. Unit Supervisor B. Group Supervisor C. Administrative Authority D. Section Chief Which NIMS Management Characteristic allows units from diverse agencies to connect, share information, and achieve situational awareness? A. Comprehensive Resource Management B. Integrated Communications C. Information and Intelligence Management D. Incident Action Planning Which NIMS structure makes cooperative multi-agency decisions? A. Joint Information System (JIS) B. Emergency Operations Center (EOC) C. Incident Command System D. MAC Groups T/F EOCs can be fixed locations, temporary facilities, or virtual structures with staff participating remotely. True When only certain EOC team members or organizations are activated to monitor a credible threat, which Activation Level has been implemented? A. Level 2 – Enhanced Steady-State B. Level 3 – Normal Operations/Steady-State C. Level 4 – No EOC is required D. Level 1 – Full Activation Which NIMS structure develops, recommends, and executes public information plans and strategies? A. Joint Information System (JIS) B. Emergency Operations Center (EOC) C. Incident Command System D. MAC Groups Which resource management task includes activating local resource requirements, if available? A. Reimburse and Restock B. Track and Report C. Order and Acquire D. Mobilize Using social media to support activities such as producing maps and incident visualizations is an example of which communications standard?