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HESI PN EXIT V3 NGN QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS With Case Study 2024 UPDATE $25.99   Add to cart

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HESI PN EXIT V3 NGN QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS With Case Study 2024 UPDATE

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HESI PN EXIT V3 NGN QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS With Case Study 2024 UPDATE

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  • November 16, 2024
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  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • HESI PN EXIT V3 NGN
  • HESI PN EXIT V3 NGN
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HESI PN EXIT V3 NGN QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2024
UPDATE
1. An ER nurse is completing an assessment on a patient that is alert but struggles to answer
questions. When she attempts to talk, she slurs her speech and appears very frightened. What
additional clinical manifestation does the nurse expect to find if nacy's sysmptoms have been
caused by a brain attack (stroke)?
A. A carotid bruit
B. A hypotensive blood pressure
C. hyperreflexic deep tendon relexes.
D. Decreased bowel sounds Correct Answer: a

2. Don a gown and gloves before entering the room.
Rationale
MRSA in the urinary tract requires contact isolation, which includes the use of a gown and
gloves. In addition to gloves and a disposable stethoscope, a gown should be worn to avoid
potential contact with MRSA-contaminated environmental surfaces while taking vital signs.
Although antiseptic wipes may be helpful if disposables are not available, bedside equipment
used for the client with MRSA should remain in the room. Since the infection is in the urinary
tract, not the respiratory system, a mask is not indicated while taking vital signs.
1. How should the PN proceed to obtain vital signs for a client with a urinary tract infection and
MRSA?
Answer: The PN should don a gown and gloves before entering the room.
2. When irrigating the external ear canals of an older adult client, which action should the PN use
to soften dry cerumen for removal?
Answer: Instill a few drops of warmed mineral oil or saline into the ear canal.
3. What position should the PN place a client in who is receiving an enteral tube feeding?
Answer: The client should be placed in a semi-Fowler's position (30–45 degrees).
4. Which finding in an older client on prolonged bed rest requires prompt action by the PN?
Answer: Reddened areas on the skin that do not blanch when pressed.




3. When preparing a patient for a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan STAT, what
nursing intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Determine if the client has any allergies to iodine
B) Explain that the client will not be able to move her head throughout the CT scan.
C) Premedicate the client to decrease pain prior to having the procedure.

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D) Provide an explanation of relaxation exercises prior to the procedure. Correct Answer: B


4. A neurologist prescribes a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head STAT for a patient.
Which data warrants immediate intervention by the nurse concerning this diagnostic test?
A) Elevated blood pressure.
B) Allergy to shell fish.
C) Right hip replacement.
D) History of atrial fibrillation. Correct Answer: C

5. A client's daughter is sitting by her mother's bedside who was recently transferred to the
Intermediate Care Unit. She states "I don't understand what a brain attack is. The healthcare
provider told me my mother is in serious condition and they are going to run several tests. I just
don't know what is going on. What happened to my mother?" What is the best response by the
nurse?
A) "I am sorry, but according to the Health Insurance Portability and Accounting Act (HIPAA), I
cannot give you any information."
B) "Your mother has had a stroke, and the blood supply to the brain has been blocked."
C) "How do you feel about what the healthcare provider said?"
D) "I will call the healthcare provider so he/she can talk to you about your mother's serious
condition." Correct Answer: B

6. Which condition is considered a non-modifiable risk factor for a brain attack?
A) High cholesterol levels.
B) Obesity.
C) History of atrial fibrillation.
D) Advanced age. Correct Answer: D

7. A client is experiencing homonymous hemianopsia as the result of a brain attack. Which
nursing intervention would the nurse implement to address this condition?
A) Turn Nancy every two hours and perform active range of motion exercises.
B) Place the objects Nancy needs for activities of daily living on the left side of the table.
C) Speak slowly and clearly to assist Nancy in forming sounds to words.
D) Request that the dietary department thicken all liquids on Nancy's meal and snack trays.
Correct Answer: B

8. A physical therapist (PT) places a gait belt on a client and is assisting them with ambulation
from the bed to the chair. As they get up out of the bed, they report being dizzy and begin to
fall. The PT carefully allows them to fall back to the bed and notifies the primary nurse. Which
written documentation should the nurse put in the client's record?
A) Client experienced orthostatic hypotension when getting out of bed.
B) PT reported client complained of dizziness when getting out of bed, and gait belt was used to
allow client to fall back onto the bed.

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C) PT notified the primary nurse that the client could not ambulate at this time because of
dizziness.
D) Client had difficulty ambulating from the bed to the chair when accompanied by the PT,
variance report completed. Correct Answer: B

9. A new nurse graduate is caring for a postoperative client with the following arterial blood
gases (ABGs): pH, 7.30; PCO2, 60 mm Hg; PO2, 80 mm Hg; bicarbonate, 24 mEq/L; and O2
saturation, 96%. Which of these actions by the new graduate is indicated?
A) Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer and to cough.
B) Administer oxygen by nasal cannula.
C) Request a prescription for sodium bicarbonate from the health care provider.
D) Inform the charge nurse that no changes in therapy are needed. Correct Answer: A

10. The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high risk for
development of coronary heart disease (CHD). Which information should the nurse include?
A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day.
D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake. Correct Answer: B

11. A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which
statement by the nurse provides the most accurate explanation for use of the splints?
A) Prevention of deformities.
B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength. Correct Answer: A

12. A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her
menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should
the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints?
A) Frequent urinary tract infections.
B) Inability to get pregnant.
C) Premenstrual syndrome.
D) Chronic use of laxatives. Correct Answer: B

13. A client with a 16-year history of diabetes mellitus is having renal function tests because of
recent fatigue, weakness, elevated blood urea nitrogen, and serum creatinine levels. Which
finding should the nurse conclude as an early symptom of renal insufficiency?
A) Dyspnea.
B) Nocturia.
C) Confusion.
D) Stomatitis. Correct Answer: B

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