PEAT 3 UPDATED ACTUAL Questions
and CORRECT Answers
A patient reports a 2-day history of a hot, swollen, first metatarsophalangeal joint. This
complaint is MOST common in:
1. osteoarthritis.
2. polymyositis.
3. gout.
4. rheumatoid arthritis. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- 1. Osteoarthritis is typically
characterized by dull, achy pain in weight-bearing joints (e.g., hips, knees, etc.) (pp. 1304-
1306).
2. Polymyositis presents as symmetric proximal muscle weakness with malaise and weight
loss. There is no joint involvement. (p. 1247)
3. Gout's typical presentation is severe joint pain, occurring at night, typically in the first
metatarsophalangeal joint. Signs and symptoms also include erythema, warmth, and extreme
tenderness and hypersensitivity of the affected joint. (p. 1345)
4. Rheumatoid arthritis presents with symmetrical joint inflammation and pain with
subluxations (pp. 1319-1322).
A patient who sustained an avulsion of the right C5 and C6spinal nerve roots will show
functional loss of right:
1. distal thumb flexion.
2. ulnar wrist deviation.
3. elbow extension.
4. shoulder abduction. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- 1. The C8-T1 nerve roots form the
median nerve (anterior interosseus), supplying the flexor pollicis longus muscle. A patient
who has an avulsion of the C5 and C6 spinal nerve roots will be able to perform distal thumb
(1st digit) flexion. (Dutton, p. 83; O'Sullivan, p. 154)
2. The C7-C8 nerve roots form the ulnar nerve and radial nerve (posterior interosseus),
supplying the flexor and extensor carpi ulnaris. Therefore, a patient who has an avulsion of
the C5 and C6 spinal nerve roots will be able to perform wrist ulnar deviation. (Dutton, pp.
83, 86; O'Sullivan, p. 154)
3. The C5-C8 and T1 nerve roots form the radial nerve, supplying the triceps brachii.
Avulsion of the C5 and C6 nerve roots will result in weakness but not functional loss of
elbow extension. (Dutton, pp. 81-82; O'Sullivan, p. 154)
,4. The C5-C6 nerve roots form the axillary nerve, supplying the deltoid and teres minor.
Avulsion of these nerve roots will result in decreased right shoulder abduction. (Dutton, p.
80; O'Sullivan, p. 154)
After a kidney transplant, a patient develops a Stage 3 pressure injury over the sacrum and is
referred to physical therapy for wound care. Which of the following is the MOSTappropriate
agent to use initially on this wound?
1. Povidone-iodine solution
2. Sterile normal saline
3. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream
4. Zinc oxide cream - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- 1. Povidone-iodine is usually used as a
skin preparation to prevent surgical site infection. It can be used in acute traumatic wounds. A
Stage 3 pressure injury is an example of a chronic wound. (Sussman, p. 518)
2. Sterile normal saline is the appropriate initial agent used to clean a wound (Sussman, p.
518).
3. Use of silver sulfadiazine may be indicated if infection is present. However, it is not
indicated in the initial treatment. (Sussman, p. 513)
4. Zinc oxide is used in dental fillings and in local surface treatment for various skin
disorders but not for chronic pressure injuries (Mosby's, p. 1913).
When providing patient education in cardiac rehabilitation, which of the following signs and
symptoms of exertional intolerance should the physical therapist emphasize?
1. Anginal pain, insomnia, sudden weight gain, leg stiffness
2. Persistent dyspnea, dizziness, anginal pain, sudden weight gain
3. Persistent dyspnea, anginal pain, insomnia, weight loss
4. Anginal pain, confusion, leg numbness, weight loss - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- 1. Leg
stiffness is not a sign/symptom associated with exercise intolerance among patients
undergoing cardiac rehabilitation.
2. The signs and symptoms listed in this option are associated with exercise intolerance
among patients undergoing cardiac rehabilitation.
3. Weight loss is not a sign associated with exercise intolerance among patients undergoing
cardiac rehabilitation. However, angina and dyspnea are important signs of exercise
intolerance.
4. Leg numbness, confusion, and weight loss are not associated with exercise intolerance.
However, angina is important to note in the patient who has cardiac dysfunction.
,A patient with no history of trauma has nonradiating low back pain. Lumbar flexion does not
reverse the lordosis and is pain-free; lumbar extension increases the symptom. Palpation
reveals a step-off in the lower lumbar region. The MOST appropriate treatment for this
patient would be:
1. abdominal strengthening.
2. sustained prone positioning on elbows.
3. exaggerated lumbar lordosis in sitting.
4. grade III posteroanterior glide to L5. - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- 1. This patient's signs
and symptoms are consistent with spondylolisthesis. Abdominal muscle strengthening and
stabilization are key to conservative management.
2. Extension activities are not indicated for a patient with spondylolisthesis.
3. Extension activities are not indicated for a patient with spondylolisthesis.
4. Extension activities are not indicated for a patient with spondylolisthesis.
A patient positioned in prone has difficulty initiating hip extension with the knee bent. Which
of the following muscles will MOST likely need strengthening?
1. Hamstrings
2. Gluteus maximus
3. Lumbar erector spinae
4. Gluteus medius - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- 1. Hamstrings are primarily knee flexors.
They can be secondary hip extensors but would be tested with the knee extended, not flexed.
(p. 242)
2. The gluteus maximus is the primary hip extensor muscle tested in this manner (p. 216).
3. Lumbar erector spinae extend the trunk on the legs. They do not attach on the femur and
have no impact on hip extension. (pp. 43-44)
4. Gluteus medius weakness would be assessed by testing hip abduction in sidelying position
(p. 223).
A patient presents with moderate pain in the elbow after a fall. The radiograph is negative for
a fracture. Which of the following mobilizations is MOST appropriate for decreasing the
pain?
1. Small-amplitude oscillations before the onset of tissue resistance
, 2. Small-amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance
3. Large-amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance
4. Large-amplitude oscillations at the end of tissue resistance - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- 1.
Small-amplitude oscillations before the onset of tissue resistance are appropriate for pain
modulation.
2. Small-amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance are more appropriate for joint stiffness,
not pain.
3. Large-amplitude oscillations into tissue resistance are more appropriate for joint stiffness.
4. Large-amplitude oscillations at the end of tissue resistance are for end range joint
restrictions and are too aggressive for patients who have pain.
During patellar reflex testing, the patient demonstrates hyperreflexia. What is the MOST
likely cause of this finding?
1. A spinal cord tumor at L1
2. A herniated nucleus pulposus at L4
3. Femoral nerve impingement
4. A cauda equina lesion - CORRECT ANSWER✔✔- 1. Pressure on the spinal cord at L1
would cause signs of upper motor neuron lesions below this level. A sign of upper motor
neuron lesion is hyperreflexia. (p. 1494)
2. A weak or absent patellar reflex is expected with nerve root L4 compression (p. 1494).
3. Peripheral nerve injuries, such as a femoral nerve impingement, would result in a
diminished patellar reflex (pp. 96-97).
4. Peripheral nerve injuries, such as a cauda equina lesion, would result in a diminished
patellar reflex (p. 134).
A patient is referred to physical therapy for right shoulder pain. Which of the following
findings suggests that physical therapy intervention may not be appropriate?
