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2025 ABFM ITE LATEST EXAM WITH ALL CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY RATED A+
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2025 ABFM ITE LATEST EXAM WITH ALL CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY RATED A+
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2025 ABFM ITE LATEST EXAM WITH ALLCORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY RATED A+
A 34-year-old female at 32 weeks gestation presents with a
right-sided, pounding headache that began 8 hours ago and
is similar to headaches she has had in the past. She is
sensitive to light and sound, and has vomited several times
since the onset of pain. She has taken acetaminophen
without relief. She takes prenatal vitamins but no other
routine medications. On examination her blood pressure is
normal.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate
treatment for this patient?
A) Dihydroergotamine
B) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
C) Naproxen
D) Oxycodone (OxyContin)
E) Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
ANSWER: B
Metoclopramide and acetaminophen are the only two medications
considered safe for abortive migraine treatment during pregnancy
(SOR B). The dopamine antagonist antiemetics are considered
second-line abortive treatments in the general population.
Dihydroergotamine should not be used during pregnancy due to
its oxytocic properties and the potential risk of intrauterine growth
restriction with its use. NSAIDs are not considered safe during
pregnancy, particularly in the first and third trimesters. Opioids are
only moderately useful for migraine treatment and should be
avoided during pregnancy due to their abuse potential. Triptans
are generally considered safe during the first trimester but not in
,the second and third trimesters. Their use has been associated
with uterine atony, increased risk of bleeding during delivery, and
increased risk of preterm birth.
Which one of the following U-100 insulin products has the
longest duration of action?
A) Degludec (Tresiba)
B) Glargine (Lantus)
C) Isophane NPH (Humulin N)
D) Lispro (Humalog)
E) Regular (Humulin R)
ANSWER: A
Among the available U-100 insulin products, the one with the
longest duration of action is ultralong-acting degludec, which lasts
42 hours. The duration of action of rapid-acting lispro is 3-6.5
hours, short-acting regular is 5-8 hours, intermediate-acting
isophane is 12-16 hours, and long-acting glargine is 11-24 hours.
When performing a geriatric assessment, which one of the
following is an instrumental activity of daily living?
A) Bathing
B) Dressing
C) Transferring between the bed and a chair
D) Using the telephone
E) Using the toilet
ANSWER: D
The foundation of geriatric assessment is assessing the
individual's ability to perform tasks required for living. Activities of
daily living are self-care activities that are performed daily, such
as eating, bathing, dressing, transferring between the bed and a
chair, and toileting, including bladder and bowel function.
Instrumental activities of daily living include activities necessary to
live independently, such as using a telephone, doing housework,
,preparing meals, taking medications properly, and managing
finances.
A 21-year-old female sees you for a medical evaluation prior
to admission to a treatment program for anorexia nervosa.
The effects of anorexia on the hypothalamic-pituitary axis
can cause which one of the following?
A) Bone loss
B) Elevated testosterone
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Menorrhagia
ANSWER: A
Anorexia has multiple effects on the hypothalamic-pituitary axis.
Bone loss can be significant. In a study of 130 women, bone
mineral density was reduced by at least 1.0 standard deviation at
one or more skeletal sites in 92% of patients. Testosterone levels
are often low, contributing to bone loss. Hypoglycemia, not
hyperglycemia, can occur but this is not common. Anorexia often
results in amenorrhea and infertility, and TSH and T4 levels may
be normal or low.
A 9-year-old male with a history of moderate persistent
asthma is brought to the emergency department with an
acute exacerbation. His symptoms began with a runny nose
and nasal congestion 2 days ago. His parents state that he
has not had any fevers or chills and he was eating and
drinking well until a few hours ago when his breathing
started to appear more labored. After multiple treatments
with inhaled albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) and oral
prednisolone he remains tachypneic and wheezy.
Which one of the following intravenous medications should
be added to the patient's current treatment to reduce the
, likelihood of hospital admission?
A) Ketorolac
B) Magnesium sulfate
C) Methylprednisolone
D) Omalizumab (Xolair)
E) Theophylline
ANSWER: B
Children who present to the emergency department with an
asthma exacerbation and fail to improve adequately with inhaled
short-acting bronchodilators and corticosteroids may benefit from
treatment with intravenous (IV) magnesium sulfate. A 2016
Cochrane review of three randomized, controlled trials found that
this reduced hospital admissions by 68%. Ketorolac is not known
to have any benefit in the treatment of asthma. Oral
administration of corticosteroids is as effective as IV
administration, so there is no reason to give IV
methylprednisolone. Omalizumab may be used to prevent
exacerbations in patients with severe asthma who do not achieve
adequate control with high-dose inhaled corticosteroids, but it has
no role in the management of acute exacerbations. IV
theophylline is not recommended for asthma exacerbations given
its safety profile and poor efficacy compared to short-acting
bronchodilators.
A 10-year-old female is brought to your office for a sports
preparticipation examination. You note thoracic rib
asymmetry during the Adams forward bend test.
Radiographs confirm rightward thoracolumbar scoliosis with
a Cobb angle of 32°.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this
time?
A) Genetic testing (ScoliScore)
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