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NCSBN TESTBANK PHARMACOLOGICAL AND PARENTAL THERAPIES NCLEXRN
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NCSBN TESTBANK PHARMACOLOGICAL AND PARENTAL THERAPIES NCLEXRN QUESTION 1 A nurse is providing care to a female client who is 32-weeks pregnant. The client has been diagnosed with hypertension and will begin prescribed pharmacological treatment. The nurse will clarify which medication i...

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  • November 26, 2024
  • 420
  • 2024/2025
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  • ncsbn testbank pharmacological and parental therap

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NCSBN TESTBANK PHARMACOLOGICAL AND
PARENTAL THERAPIES NCLEXRN

QUESTION 1
A nurse is providing care to a female client who is 32-weeks pregnant. The client
has been diagnosed with hypertension and will begin prescribed pharmacological
treatment. The nurse will clarify which medication if observed in the client’s
record?...

A

Spironolactone

B

Methyldopa

C

Lisinopril Correct Answer

D

Hydralazine



Question Explanation

Rationale: Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used in the
treatment of hypertension. ACE inhibitors are pregnancy risk category D and are
contraindicated during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. Spironolactone
and methyldopa are pregnancy risk category B and have been used routinely and safely
during pregnancy. Hydralazine is a pregnancy risk category C, but its use has been
proven to be safe during pregnancy.

Concepts tested

NCLEX: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
Question 2

A nurse is preparing to administer plasma to a client with a coagulation disorder. Which
identification step will the nurse verify prior to initiating the transfusion?

P a g e 1 | 411

, A

Cross match

B

Expiration date

C

ABO compatibility Correct Answer

D

Hemoglobin level



Question Explanation

Rationale: Plasma is a blood product that needs to be typed prior to administration to
avoid a reaction. Typing determines if the blood product is compatible with the client’s
blood type. A cross match for antigens is only required for transfusions containing red
blood cells. The expiration date is an important component to check prior to
administration. However, this does not identify the client. Plasma does not contain red
blood cells, so checking the hemoglobin level is not indicated and does not identify the
client.

Concepts tested

NCLEX: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
Question 3

The nurse is preparing to administer newly prescribed intravenous phenytoin to a client.
When reviewing the client’s medical record, which prescription should the nurse
question?

A

Continuous infusion of dextrose 5% in 0.9% saline Correct Answer

B

NPH insulin 40 units before meals

C

Labetalol 100 mg orally twice per day Your Answer

,Ketorolac 15 mg IV push as needed for pain



Question Explanation

Rationale: Phenytoin is not compatible with most IV fluids, especially those with
dextrose. If the nurse observes a continuous infusion of a fluid that contains dextrose,
they should understand that incompatibilities are likely and should not administer the
medication as prescribed. Insulin, labetalol, and ketorolac do not have potential
incompatibilities.

Concepts tested

NCLEX: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
Question 4

The nurse is assisting a client who is taking amlodipine with meal planning. Which fluid
selected by the client would require follow up by the nurse?
A

Black coffee

B

Grapefruit juice Correct Answer

C

Green tea

D

Chocolate Milk



Question Explanation

Rationale: Grapefruit juice affects the metabolism of certain medications, such as
amlodipine, and may cause toxicity if taken together. Clients who are taking antibiotics,
such as tetracycline, should avoid consuming milk products. Clients who are taking
warfarin should avoid consuming green tea. Clients who are taking stimulants should
avoid consuming black coffee.

P a g e 3 | 411

, Concepts tested

NCLEX: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

Question 5

The nurse is providing teaching to the client taking metoclopramide. Serious side
effects that should be reported to the provider are included in the teaching plan.
Which of the following side effects is the priority?

A

Involuntary muscle movements Correct Answer

B

Report of increased fatigue

C

Onset of headaches

D

Difficulty with sleep

Question Explanation

Rationale: Metoclopramide is a GI stimulant that is effective in reducing headache,
nausea, and vomiting. Metoclopramide can cause a serious movement disorder called
tardive dyskinesia (TD). This condition is often irreversible. TD is characterized by
involuntary movements of the face, tongue, or extremities. The risk of developing TD is
increased with longer treatment and increased dosage. To help prevent TD, this drug
shouldn’t be used for longer than 12 weeks. The more common side effects of
metoclopramide can include headache, confusion, drowsiness, dizziness, restlessness,
and insomnia.

Concepts tested

NCLEX: Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
Question 6

The nurse is assessing a client who is taking rifampin for the treatment of tuberculosis.
Which finding reported by the client should the nurse immediately report to the
healthcare provider?

A

Blurred vision

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