BSN 246 HESI EXAM | STUDY
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
ANSWERS AND RATIONALE | RATED
A+ | NIGHTINGALE
A female client calls the clinic and talks with the registered nurse (RN) to
inquire about a possible reaction after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She
reports having vaginal discomfort, itching, and a white discharge. The
RN should discuss which action with the client?
A. Discontinue the antibiotic because original symptoms have subsided.
B. Continue taking medication until finished until the symptoms subside.
C. Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for this
effect.
D. Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the
secretions.
- Correct Answer - C. Consult with healthcare provider about another
treatment for this effect.
Rationale
A superinfection with normal flora yeast may occur during antibiotic
therapy. If suspected, the new onset of findings should be reported to the
healthcare provider for another prescribed treatment to treat the
superinfection.
,The registered nurse (RN) did not note that a prescription dose was
recently changed and did not note the updated medication
administration record (MAR). After giving the client the original dose, the
RN reports the medication error to the nurse manager. What
consequences will the RN experience due to this error in medication
administration?
A. The incident will be reported to the state's Board of Nursing (BON).
B. A medication error report will be completed and risk management will
be notified.
C. The RN will be suspended from medication administration until the
error is investigated.
D. The incident will be documented in the RN's personnel file.
- Correct Answer - B. A medication error report will be completed and risk
management will be notified.
Rationale
By reviewing quality of care internally, steps of care can be evaluated
and staff can be educated where gaps are identified. The medication
report and notification of management is the responsibility of the RN who
made the mistake, so an internal review of the steps of the occurrence
can be completed to determine further risk potentials.
The registered nurse (RN) notifies the spouse of a client who was
admitted to hospice with shallow respirations, of a change in the client's
condition. Over the past hour, the client's respiratory pattern has
changed to a Cheyne Stokes pattern.After receiving this information, the
,client's spouse begins vacuuming around the bed. Which stage of grief
is the spouse displaying during the visit?
A. Acceptance.
B. Denial.
C. Bargaining.
D. Depression.
- Correct Answer - B. Denial.
Rationale
The spouse is exhibiting the first stage of denial of Kubler-Ross's grief
model by ignoring that the client's death is imminent.
The registered nurse (RN) recognizes which client group is at the
greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)? (Rank from
highest risk to lowest risk.)
1. School-age female.
2. Older females.
3. Older males.
4. Adolescent males.
- Correct Answer - 1. Older females.
2. School-age female.
3. Older males.
4. Adolescent males.
Rationale
, Hypoestrogenism and alkalotic urine are other age-related factors put
older women at the highest risk for UTIs. School age girls (6 to 12 years)
are at risk for UTIs due to a higher prevalence to taking baths instead of
showers, but these risks can be controlled in this population as well as
hypoestrogenism and alkalotic urine. Older men are at risk due to
possible obstruction of the bladder due to benign prostatic hypertrophy
(BPH). Adolescent males (12 to 19 years) are the lowest at risk for a
UTI.All individuals regardless of gender and/or age are at risk if the
following conditions exist: vesicoureteral reflux, neuromuscular
conditions, like Parkinson's disease, previous brain attacks, or the use of
anticholinergic medications can all cause incomplete bladder emptying
which can create bacterial overgrowth. Fecal and urinary incontinence
contributes to poor perineal hygiene and bacterial growth.
The registered nurse (RN) is making early morning rounds on a group of
clients when a client begins exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma
attack. The RN administers a PRN prescription for a Beta 2 receptor
agonist agent. Which client response should the RN expect?
Select all that apply
A. Tachycardia.
B. Increased blood pressure.
C. Rapid resolution of wheezing.
D. Improved pulse oximetry values.
E. Reduce fever airway inflammation.
- Correct Answer - C. Rapid resolution of wheezing.
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