CSFA Exam Prep Questions Completed with 100% Correct Answers

CSFA Exam Prep Questions Completed with 100% Correct Answers CSFA Exam Prep Questions Completed with 100% Correct Answers When performing a coronary artery by-pass graft procedure, what vessel is placed between the coronary artery and the ascending aorta? << correct answer >> segmented saphenous vein Why is intraoperative cholangiography performed? << correct answer >> to evaluate biliary anatomy What is the most common cause of large bowel obstruction? << correct answer >> colon cancer Claudication is a common symptom of what disease? << correct answer >> peripherial arterial occlusive What is the percentage of finding gallstones in the common bile duct? << correct answer >> 5%What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism? << correct answer >> single parathyroid adenoma This form of breast cancer is highly aggressive and presents with a tender, inflamed, erythematous painful breast, which can be mistaken for a breast abscess. << correct answer >> inflammatory What medical problem in the surgical patient can lead to post operative viral infections? << correct answer >> upper respiratory tract infection Asymptomatic abdominal aortic aneurysm should be repaired when the diameter exceeds what value? << correct answer >> 5.5 cm What takes precedence in a trauma patient with uncontrolled hemorrhagic injuries and an intracranial hematoma? << correct answer >> gaining control of bleeding How is diaphragmatic rupture repaired? << correct answer >> thoracotomy What is the major cause of cerebrovascular accidents? << correct answer >> occlusion Which of the following is the most common primary CNS tumor and infiltrates the brain early on? << correct answer >> glioma According to the text, surgical repair of what aortic aneurysm requires use of cardiopulmonary bypass to sustain body perfusion? << correct answer >> ascending What type of injury is characteristic of a human or animal bite? << correct answer >> avulsion Which terms involves transplantation from a non-identical donor to a recipient of the same species? << correct answer >> allograft What is not removed when performing a pancreaticoduodenectomy? << correct answer >> tail of the pancreas What is the most common site for peptic ulcer formation? << correct answer >> duodenum What surgical procedure is performed for cancer of the left colon? << correct answer >> left hemicolectomy In patients with deep venous insufficiency, what is the least common symptom? << correct answer >> venous claudicationVesicle inflammation, dysuria, and frequency, sometimes with fever is a symptom of: << correct answer >> acute bacterial cystitis In which nodal stage does testicular cancer in situ become extra-lymphatic? << correct answer >> IV Incomplete occlusion of what artery causes chronic small bowel ischemia? << correct answer >> superior mesenteric When performing lower limb salvage surgery, a bypass will be performed from the femoral artery to what artery? << correct answer >> posterior tibial An extradural hematoma forms when what artery is torn? << correct answer >> dural What surgical procedure is performed to reduce spasms of the anal sphincter? << correct answer >> lateral sphincterotomy When treating burn patients, what should be avoided if at all possible during the first 24 hours of treatment? << correct answer >> transfusion Abdominae wound dehiscence occurs within how many days postop? << correct answer >> 7 - 10 What is the tumor that accounts for 10% of childhood renal obstructive malignancies? << correct answer >> Wilms What is the most frequently injured organ in abdominal trauma? << correct answer >> liver Cushing's syndrome is caused by excessive secretion of what steriod hormone? << correct answer >> cortisone When surgically treating a vascular trauma patient, what should the first assistant do? << correct answer >> control above and below bleeding What diagnostic test is mandatory if any form of therapeutic intervention is being considered in patients with lower limb arterial disease? << correct answer >> arteriography Which type of clinical melanoma is the most common? << correct answer >> superficial spreading What does incarceration of a paraesophageal hernia cause? << correct answer >> gastric outlet obstructionWhat is one major preventative measure instituted in the operating room to prevent thrombosis in the surgical patient? << correct answer >> applying compression stockings What is the most common form of shock encountered by the surgical team? << correct answer >> hypovolemic What are the consequences of post-op splenectomy? << correct answer >> increase in circulating platelet levels Critical lab ischemia can be defined as a limb in which the ankle systolic pressure is less than what? << correct answer >> 50 mmHg What is the cause of parietal peritoneum pain in the acute abdomen? << correct answer >> pus What document must be completed and in the patients chart prior to the beginning of the surgical procedure? << correct answer >> consent for surgery Which of the following thyroid carcinomas is the most common and has the best prognosis? << correct answer >> papillary What is the most common idiopathic transmural inflammatory disease of the small intestine? << correct answer >> Chron's disease When does hyper-acute rejection in the transplant patient take place? << correct answer >> minutes to hours What type of cerebral injury results in the formation of a pathway for endogenous pathogens to enter the brain and cause infection? << correct answer >> skull base fractures Which type of hernia is congenital and develops when the peritoneal sac through which the testicle decends into the scrotum remains patent? << correct answer >> indirect What form of shock could the surgeon encounter involving major gastrointestinal blood loss? << correct answer >> hemorrhagic What type of peripheral aneurysm is most frequent? << correct answer >> popliteal What is the most common cause of intraluminal upper urinary tract obstruction? << correct answer >> calculus What should the surgical assistant immediately assess concerning the unconscious trauma patient? << correct answer >> airwayCell culture is a term referring to the use of cell monolayer for cultivation of obligate intracellular pathogens such as? << correct answer >> chlamydias. Which is a free-living amoeba known to cause meningitis in the immunosuppressed and keratitis in contact lens wearers. << correct answer >> acanthamoeba The ESR is the speed at which a column of _____________ settles. << correct answer >> red blood cells The VDRL test is a non-specific serological test for infection with? << correct answer >> treponema pallidium An antibody test detection method. << correct answer >> complement fixation Term used to refer to a type of solid growth medium for bacteria or fungi. << correct answer >> agar Silver sulphadiazine? << correct answer >> is applied to burns Fine clumping cause by a reaction between a test organism and agglutinating antisera is called. << correct answer >> agglutination Toxoplasmosis is transmitted by ingestion of raw or poorly cooked meat containing... << correct answer >> sporulated oocyte Amantidine is used for treatment and prevention of? << correct answer >> type "A" influenza outbreaks A serological test is used to assess the rubella immune status of? << correct answer >> pregnant women The relative percentage of different leukocyte cell lines in peripheral blood or other fluid examined is called << correct answer >> the differential count. Beta lactamase testing identifies the enzyme responsible for resistance to << correct answer >> penicillin Shock is a potentially fatal condition in which tissues are poorly perfused and, consequently, << correct answer >> become ischemic When sinus bradycardia occurs, depolarization originates from what area of the heart? << correct answer >> Sinoatrial node Aspirin reduces the rate of cardiovascular events in patients with stable angina and should be given to all patients unless they have a? << correct answer >> clear contraindicationMyocardial cells require ___________ to function. << correct answer >> oxygen Heparin __________ clotting in the myocardial arteries. << correct answer >> inhibits Antiplatelet agents prevent << correct answer >> platlet aggregation. Loop diuretics are more powerful than thiazides and must be used cautiously to avoid << correct answer >> dehydration. Vasopressors constrict blood vessels and improve cardiac function by stimulating << correct answer >> adrenergic receptors. Angina is another term for________. << correct answer >> chest pain When atrial flutter occurs, the atrial impulse reenters and depolarizes at << correct answer >> 250 - 350 impulses per minute. Peripheral antiadrenergics prevent norepinepherine release from << correct answer >> peripheral nerve terminals. Which of the following diuretic medications osmotically inhibits sodium and water reabsorption? << correct answer >> Mannitol Calcium entry blockers prevent calcium influx into the muscle cells of << correct answer >> blood vessel walls. How many classes of lipid-lowering agents (lipoproteins) are there? << correct answer >> 6 What structure is considered to be the pacemaker of the heart? << correct answer >> sinoatrial node Diuretics reduce blood pressure and edema by << correct answer >> increasing urine production. Which of the following anti-hypertensives diuretics draw water into the urine without interfering with ion secretion or absorption in the kidney? << correct answer >> osmotic Which class of drugs antagonizes adrenergic receptors? << correct answer >> II Alpha and beta blockers compete with endogenous agonists for << correct answer >> adrenergic receptors. Calcium channel blockers are equally effective as beta-blockers in reducing anginal symptoms in << correct answer >> stable patients.Adrenergic agonists increase blood pressure by stimulating the heart, and/or constricting << correct answer >> peripheral blood vessels. Beta blockers reduce ischemic burden in unstable angina by: << correct answer >> decreasing heart rate and blood pressure What vitamin is required for clotting factors to be activated? << correct answer >> K Successful treatment of pulmonary edema reduces the risk of: << correct answer >> secondary right heart failure Thiazide diuretics inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption in the _____________. << correct answer >> distal tubule Improper inhalation administration of bronchiodilators is an explanation for << correct answer >> therapeutic failure Corticosteroids benefit patients with obstructive lung disease by: << correct answer >> reducing inflammation Patients with chronic bronchitis and/or emphysema experience chronic ___________ as a result of airway obstruction. << correct answer >> dyspnea What is the bacterium that causes most cases of gastritis and duodenal ulcer disease? << correct answer >> H. pylori Nizatidine is indicated for duodenal ulcers and << correct answer >> benign gastric ulcers Corticosteroids decrease << correct answer >> peribronchial inflammation Diarrhea is usually caused by << correct answer >> infections, toxins or drugs What enzyme breaks down fats so that they can be easily absorbed by the intestines? << correct answer >> lipase Chronic inflammation is caused by prolonged exposure to airway irritants such as << correct answer >> pollution and cigarette smoke Expiratory wheezing is due in part to bronchiolar __________ which traps air distal to the compromised site. << correct answer >> collapse Loss of lung elasticity results in << correct answer >> terminal bronchiole enlargementGERD (reflux disease) is exacerbated by __________ and smoking. << correct answer >> obesity Bronchoconstriction results from the effects of acetycholine, histamine, and inflammatory mediators released within << correct answer >> the bronchial walls is the prophylactic agent that inhibits the release of mediators from inflammatory cells, such as mast cells and is used exclusively in asthma? Cromolyn It is more difficult for bacteria to develop resistance to two drugs with different mechanisms than to develop resistance to << correct answer >> a single agent Pseudomonas aeruginosa is sometimes responsible for << correct answer >> hospital acquired infections Which bactericidal drug prevents the transfer of cell wall precurser from plasma membrane to cell wall? << correct answer >> vancomycin When Candida infects the mouth it is called __________. << correct answer >> thrush Currently there are three categories of anti-HIV drugs: nucleoside analogs, nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors and ________________ inhibitors. << correct answer >> protease Where is Staph aureus most likely to cause an infection? << correct answer >> Skin What must bacteria do to proteins in order to survive? << correct answer >> synthesize Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites composed of either DNA or __________. << correct answer >> RNA Tuberculosis and leprosy are known and what type of bacterial diseases? << correct answer >> mycobacteria Reactive Airway Disease causes decreased oxygenation of the lungs secondary to << correct answer >> tracheobronchial constriction Viruses are obligate intracellular ____________ composed of either DNA or RNA wrapped in a protein nucleocapsule. << correct answer >> parasites What is the drug of choice for presumed fungemia? << correct answer >> amphotericin Anaerobes colonize the skin, gastrointestinal tract and _____________of all persons. << correct answer >> mouth Tuberculosis often presents with pulmonary symptoms but may involve lymph nodes, bones, skin and _____________. << correct answer >> meningesIf strep throat is left untreated, it may elicit an immunologic reaction in the heart, joints and other tissues that is called __________ fever. << correct answer >> rheumatic Which of the following is considered the gold standard for identification of microbes. << correct answer >> cultures The sensitivity of bacteria to various antibiotics is determined by growing cultures in the presence of the antibiotics of interest. This is called: << correct answer >> Sensitivity determination Third generation cephalosporins are effective against many Gram-negatives and they << correct answer >> penetrate the brain well First generation cephalosporins are effective against Gram-positive organisms but subsequent generations reduced it effectiveness to << correct answer >> gram-positive organisms Common Gram-negative pathogens that normally inhabit the GI tract fall into what group? << correct answer >> enterics Hormonal anticancer drugs ____________ receptors, preventing endogenous growthpromoting hormones from binding. << correct answer >> antagonize Some tumors become resistant to several classes of antitumor agents, even though they have never been exposed to some of these agents. This is called __________ drug resistance. << correct answer >> multi-drug Leukemias and lymphomas are derived from ___________ cells. << correct answer >> Immune Tumor cells are derived from normal cells in which proliferation is << correct answer >> poorly controlled Hematopoietic Agents are ________________ produced by cultured mammalian cells. << correct answer >> glycoproteins Cancer cells become resistant to anticancer agents through a variety of mechanisms including enhanced production that repair damaged ________. << correct answer >> DNA The most commonly used antibiotic anticancer agents are Adriamycin, Actinomycin D, mitomycin C and ___________. << correct answer >> bleomycin Vincristine causes peripheral neuropathy which is manifested by decreased reflexes, foot drop, weak fingers and << correct answer >> decreased autonomic functionMost anticancer hormones act as agonists that inhibit tumor cell growth or as antagonists that compete with << correct answer >> endogenous growth promoting hormones Antimetabolites are cell-cycle specific agents which prevent synthesis of nucleotides or inhibit enzymes by << correct answer >> mimicking nucleotides Bifuctional alkylation is more toxic than single strand alkylation because is is less easily ____________. << correct answer >> repaired One of the notable side effects of cyclophosphamide is << correct answer >> hemorrhagic cystitis All alkylating agents are toxic to ___________ cells. << correct answer >> hemotologic __________ induce a number of gene products in cells that are interferon receptor positive. << correct answer >> Interferons Which antibiotic anticancer agent is extensively used to treat pediatric sarcomas? << correct answer >> dactinomycin Tumor cells are remarkably similar to << correct answer >> noncancerous human cells Many anticancer drugs cause toxicity that are << correct answer >> unrelated to cell growth rate Joint inflammation and tissue damage << correct answer >> characterize arthritis Tylenol lacks ___________ actions in its usage. << correct answer >> anti-inflammatory What is the immunostimulating agent that is indicated for Kaposi's sarcoma? << correct answer >> interferons There are anti-inflammatory agents capable of inhibiting or << correct answer >> stimulating specific immune pathways Which of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents is less likely to cause GI bleeding and tinnitis but may cause acute interstitial nephritis? << correct answer >> dolobid Which of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents is contraindicated in patients with GI lesions? << correct answer >> indocin Which antigout agent fosters the elimination of uric acid release from leukemia cells?? << correct answer >> allopurinolSymptoms of inflammation include _________ , redness, and tenderness. << correct answer >> heat Immunosuppressants not only help prevent rejection of transplanted organs but also prevents << correct answer >> erythroblastosis fetalis The ureters are completely retroperitoneal in their course << correct answer >> true a trauma patients fate is decided by what is done or not done during the golden hour of opportunity after injury << correct answer >> true The glasgow coma scale is commonly used in emergency treatment. This records the patients motor verbal and eye movement responses to stimulation << correct answer >> true The metaphyseal area of a long bone is the usual site of acute osteitis in children. << correct answer >> True Radiculopathy is the name given to the symptoms produced when a nerve root is compressed by or stretched around an osteophyte << correct answer >> true in compartment syndrome there are four compartments in the forearm and two in the leg << correct answer >> false supracondylar fractures in children in considered to be an orthopedic emergency << correct answer >> true which of the following non steroidal anti-inflammator agents is less likely to cause GI bleeding and tinnitus but may cause a acute interstitial nephritis << correct answer >> Dolobid joint inflammation and tissue damage characterize arthritis << correct answer >> True Tylenol lacks _______ actions in its usage << correct answer >> Anti-inflammatory immunosuppressants not only help prevent rejection of transplanted organs but also prevents erthroblatosis fetalis << correct answer >> True Which anti gout agent inhibits renal reabsorption of uric acid << correct answer >> Sulfinpyrazone There are anti -inflammatory agents capable of inhibiting or stimulating specific immune pathways << correct answer >> TrueAcetaminophen is considered to be non steroidal anti-inflammatory agent << correct answer >> True Which of the following non steroidal anti-inflammatory agents is contraindicated in patients with GI lesions << correct answer >> Indocin What is the immunostimulating agent that is indicated for Kaposi's sarcoma << correct answer >> interferons Symptoms of inflammation include _____redness,and tenderness << correct answer >> Heat _____ induce a number of gene products in cells that are interferon receptor positive << correct answer >> Interferons Hormonal anticancer drugs ______ receptors, preventing endogenous growth,- promoting hormones from binding << correct answer >> Antagonize Axid is an acid reducing agent << correct answer >> True Medication given by injection in the muscle is termed << correct answer >> IM One of the most common undesirable effects of insulin administration is << correct answer >> hypohlycemia reactive airway disease is also known as << correct answer >> Asthma ibuprofen can cause GI irritation or ulceration when used in high dosage << correct answer >> True Parkinson's disease is caused by decreased _____ neurotransmission << correct answer >> dopamine The duration of the drug is << correct answer >> length of time for which a drug is therapeutic Which of the following antibiotic prevents the cross-linking of cell wall components << correct answer >> penicillin -------- is commonly given pre-op to patients to reduce acid in the GI tract << correct answer >> reglan one site in the body that is protected as far antibiotic therapy goes(meaning it is harder to get tissue in that area to respond to the drug) is << correct answer >> jointas a first assistant what is the firs response if a patin has an allergic reaction to a drug << correct answer >> mainstain sterility of the field pitocin is used typically in which surgical speciaty << correct answer >> obstertrics the parasympathetic system expends energy << correct answer >> false Third generation cephalosporins are effective against many gram-negatives and are not destroyed by cephalosporins << correct answer >> true the peripheral nervous system is divided into the somatic nervous and ______ system << correct answer >> Autonomic Dependence occurs when a patient needs a drug to function normally << correct answer >> true Most anticancer agents act by inhibiting cell ____ << correct answer >> proliferation Direct vasodilators_______ smooth muscle cells << correct answer >> relax Corticosteroids _______ prebronchial inflammation << correct answer >> decrease What antihypertensive (diuretics) must be used cautiously to avoid dehydration and requires potassium levels to be followed closely << correct answer >> loop The term tolerance means _____ response to a drug << correct answer >> decreased Most drugs,toxins and metabolites are excreted in the << correct answer >> urine bronchoconstriction results from the effects of acetycholine, histamine and _______ mediators released with the bronchial walls << correct answer >> inflammatory The last thing to do when forming a story about a drug is to associate, ask, and << correct answer >> predict Patients with chronic bronchitis experience chronic _____ as a result of airway obstruction and inflammation << correct answer >> dyspnea "Which of the following types of anesthesia is broadly defined as reversible loss of sensation in a specific area or region of the body general regional sedation analgesia << correct answer >> regional"Which of the following identifies the measurement of oxygen saturation in a pulsating vessel co2 po2 spo2 ETco2 << correct answer >> Spo2 "Which of the following analyzes the pulsate arterial component of blood flow Capnography pulse oximetry respirometer inspired o2 analyzer << correct answer >> pulse oximetry "which of the following measures CO2 concentration capnometer ispirometer respirometer spirometer << correct answer >> capnometer "small amounts of water is readily absorbed by the----- in patients taking preoperative oral pain medication soft palate tonsillar fossa palatine surface gastric mucosa << correct answer >> gastric muscosa "what is is the minimal NPO recommended fasting period for breast milk 2hr 4hr 6hr 8hr << correct answer >> 4hr "which of the following medications can be given on an empty stomach to decrease the risk of aspiration pepcid zantac reglan tagament << correct answer >> reglan "what is the ASA physical status classification status for a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life P3 P4 P5 P6 << correct answer >> P4"which of the following medications may be administered to prevent bradycardia in pediatric patients atropine midazolam propofol rocuronium << correct answer >> atropine "the assignment of a physical status classification depends on the patients ______ independent of the proposed procedure pain threshold physical limitation psychological condition phyisiolgical condition << correct answer >> phyisilogical condition "what may be used during a procedure that poses a risk of a venous air embolism ct scan MRI doppler capnometer << correct answer >> doppler "which of the following anesthetic gasses boils a nearly room temperature ultane suprane sevoflurane isoflurane << correct answer >> suprane "what is frequently used to monitor renal function and hemodynamic status sep monitor bis monitor transcutaneous monitor indwelling urinary catheter << correct answer >> indwelling urinary catheter all alkylating agents are toxic____ cells << correct answer >> hemotologic antimetebolites are cell-cycle specific agents with prevent synthesis of nucleotides or inhibit enzymes by mimicking nucleotides << correct answer >> true tumor cells are derived form normal cells in which proliferation is poorly controlled << correct answer >> true Bifuctional alkylation is more toxic than single strain alkylation because is less easily _________ << correct answer >> Repaired Alkylating agents are generally more effective against fast growing tumors than other classes of tumors << correct answer >> falseCytomegalovirus affects the brain << correct answer >> false there is not effective antiviral treatment for polio << correct answer >> true there is currently no effective treatment for cytomegalovirus which is the most common congenital viral infection << correct answer >> true Ostemomyelitis associated with peripheral vascular disease often affects the hands and is commonly caused by streptococci and anaerobic bacteria << correct answer >> False bacterial keratitis can be caused by streptococcus pneumoniae << correct answer >> true "The presence of only one living microorganism means an object is? aseptic sanitized disinfected contaminated << correct answer >> contaminated "which statement concerning masks in false? air must filter through the mask not escape around it as the mask becomes moist filtration effectiveness decreases ties may be tied crisscross on the top of head ties must be on the top and one behind << correct answer >> ties must be tied crisscross on top of head "in draping a table, the scrub nurse drapes from----- to ----------protecting her gloves back,front with sterile towel front,back by cuffing drape edge front,back by double gloving side by side cuffing drape edge << correct answer >> front back by cuffing drape edge "The purpose of the hand scrub by the surgical team is to render their skin sterile sanitized disinfected surgically clean << correct answer >> surgically clean "after steam sterilization which items should not be considered sterile? suction tips attached to tubing asepto syringes with bulbs attached cauterty tips bound with rubber bands all the above << correct answer >> all the above "Because there is less chance of contamination the preferred method of gloving is ____. For changing only a glove during a case, this method___ be used?open,can closed,can open,cannot closed,cannot << correct answer >> closed,cannot "Which directive for loading a pressure steam sterilizer is incorrect? place all linen packs on edge load liquids first to prevent spillage on packs place un covered canisters on sides load mesh botton instruments tray flat << correct answer >> load liquids first to prevent spillage on packs "Which statement is not true? if in doubt about sterility of anything consider it not sterile the inside of the wrapper edges are sterile sterile persons must avoid leaning over unsterile areas a sterile person turns his back to and unsterile are when passing it << correct answer >> the inside of the wrapper sedges are sterile "if the prep site contains a colstomy or draining sinus which cannot be sealed off it should be scrubbed? first with separate prep tray first with separate prep tray last with sponges used one and discarded along with prep site << correct answer >> last with sponges used once and discarded "operating room floors should be flooded with ___ and__ at the end of each ____. detergent,germicide,mopped,day germicide solution,wet vacuumed,day detergent germicide, wet vacummed, case << correct answer >> detergent,germicide,wet vacummed,case "which are the potential sources for surgical infection? 1 circulating air 2 patients bronchial tree 3 scrub teams hair 4 patients circulating blood 5 instruments 6 patients and scrub teams skin << correct answer >> all "which statement regarding the use if masks is false? handle masks only by the strings they should be changed between procedures cross strings behind the head of better aeration cloth or gauze masks are no longer acceptable for OR use << correct answer >> cross strings behind the head of better aeration"The soaking of moisture through unsterile layers to sterile layers or vice versa is? permeation strike through fall out denaturation << correct answer >> Strike through "Which statement concerning the use of boiling water as a sterilizing agent is false? it does not sterilize instruments spores will withstand water boiling at 212.F minimum boiling period is 10 minutes boiling points of water vary at different altitudes << correct answer >> minimum boiling period is 10 minutes "The OR ventilating system ensures controlled air supply __ air exchanges per hour are recommended for infection control and a ____ percent humidity is mandatory to suppress static electricity 30,30 25,50 15,60 20,40 << correct answer >> 25,50 "Which draping principle is false? always cuff drape over gloved hands discard the drape if incorrectly placed drape far side of non sterile table first points of towel clip through drape are contaminated << correct answer >> drape far side of non sterile table first "which are not essential consideration in the design of an OR suite? 1 hospital size 2 traffic control 3 windows 4 supply fl0w system 5 top floor location 6 central corridor << correct answer >> 3,5,6 "when is the open glove technique preferred over the closed glove technique? when a scrub nurse self gloves to set up always as it reduces chances of contamination to change a glove during a procedure never << correct answer >> to change a glove during a procedure "The first step in decontamination process of instruments after a procedure should be? hand scrubbing of soil instruments mechanical decontamination washer sterilzersonic cleaning rinsing in detergent << correct answer >> mechanical decontamination washer sterilzer "which antiseptic solutions are effective against both gram negative and gram positive microorganisms? 1 iodophors 2 chlorhexdine gluconate 3hexachlorophene 4 alcohol << correct answer >> 1,2 "which statement regarding sterile technique is false? tables are sterile only at table level contents of a sterile bottle once opened must be discarded wrapper edges are considered unsterile paper or peel open packages are torn to expose contents << correct answer >> paper or peel open packages are torn to expose contents "which is used to check the effectiveness of sterilizers? 1 chemical indicator 2 biological spore strips 3 indicatior strip 4 recording thermometer << correct answer >> 2 "which statement concerning ethylene oxide sterilization is false? gas highly flammable and explosive to air polyvinyl chloride wrappers all porous materials are permeated in the process it takes longer than steam sterilization << correct answer >> polyvinyl chloride wrappers are recommended "predisposing factors that substantially increases the risk of infection are? 1 duration of the operation 2 invasive monitoring techniques 3 indiscriminate use of antibiotics 4 gastrointestinal surgery 5 prosthetic devices << correct answer >> all of the above "an area of gown considered sterile is the ____ while the___ is considered unsterile? back of the gown, axillae shoulders, area below table level sleeves, neck neck,damp area << correct answer >> sleeves,neck "which is a major source of contamination in the operating room? personnel circulating airpatients respiratory tract patients skin << correct answer >> personnel "The foundation for the practice of strict aseptic and sterile technique is? patient safety standardization of principles a surgical conscience infection control << correct answer >> a surgical conscience "Factors that have adverse affects on shelf life of sterile items? 1 open cabinets 2 high temperature 3 dust covers 4 extremes in humidity << correct answer >> 1,2,4 "which is not effective method of disinfection in an operating room? 1 mercurial compounds 2 iodophors 3 fogging 4 formaldehyde 5 phenolic compounds << correct answer >> 1,3 "which statement concerning pathogenic streptococci species of microorganism is false? primary source is human respiratory tract they are non sporeformers steam under pressure easily destroys them they are gram negative non motile organisms << correct answer >> they are gram negative nonmotile organisms "The preferred method of sterilization for heat sensitive and anesthesia equipment when EO sterilization is impractical is soaking in? benzalkonium chloride activated glutaraldehyde ethyl alcohol aqueous solution of formaldehyde << correct answer >> activated gluaraldehyde "Which is considered a disadvantage in use of muslin as wrapper material for sterile packs and items? it is memory free it must be laundered to rehydrate it can be reused small holes can be heat sealed << correct answer >> it must be laundered to rehydrate "which statement regarding hexachlorophene as an antiseptic solution is false? a cumulative suppressive action develops with routine useit is neutralized by alcohol it is ineffective against gram negative organisms it is soluble in water << correct answer >> it is soluble in water "completely unwrapped item may be sterilized in a flash sterilized in a flash sterilizer at ____ pounds of pressure _____ degrees F __ minutes? 15,250,5 27,270,3 18,200,10 20,150,8 << correct answer >> 27,270,3 "which statement is not true about the sino-atrial node? it is located in the wall of the right atrium it is the hearts pacemaker impulses pass from it to the bundle of his it initiates atrial contractions << correct answer >> impulses pass from it to the bundle of his "oxygen is carried in the blood? A; as physically dissolved oxygen in plasma B: through the pulmonary arteries in general circulation C: in combination with the hemoglobin of the red blood cells << correct answer >> A and C "all of the following may cause arterial hypotension in a surgical patient except? hypoxia hypervolemia transfusion rection malignant hyperthermia << correct answer >> hypervolemia The anesthesiologist evaluates the patients oxygenation and carbon dioxide removal by measuring arterial 1ph 2:pCO2 3: h2CO3 4:PO2 << correct answer >> 1,2,3, "which statement is not true about fluids? extracellular fluids consist of interstitial fluid and blood plasma hypovolemia is a defect of both water and electrolytes lab report of a dehydrated pt shows a decrease in packed cell volume and hemoglobin extracellular fluid volume is proportionately larger in infants than in adults << correct answer >> lab report of a dehydrated pt shows a decrease in packed cell volume and hemoglobin "the center with regulates the rhythm of respiration is located in the? pituitary alveoli pons thalamus << correct answer >> pons"in surgical patients the most common cause of shock is oligmia which is a an? decreased renal output deficient circulating blood volume increased vasodilation << correct answer >> deficient circulating blood volume "which of the following may cause apnea? stimulation of the pharynx by irritating chemicals sudden cold stimulation applied to the skin sudden painful stimulation all of the above << correct answer >> all of the above To produce inspiration,___pressure must be lower than___pressure;it must be ____to produce expiration? intrathoracic,atmospheric,higher intrapleural,osmotic,lowered atmospheric,intrapulmonic,higher alveoli,positive,lowered << correct answer >> intrathoracic,atmospheric,higher Delayed mobility of the surgical patient may lead to the following except? deep vein thrombosis pulmonary consolidation pulmonary embolism decreased metabolic function << correct answer >> decreased metabolic function CO2 instilled into the peritoneal cavity is diffused across the peritoneal surface into arterial circulation? true or false << correct answer >> false While operating a camera its best to keep camera oriented on the vertical horizon? true or false << correct answer >> false All of the following are commonly used light sources except? metal halide halogen fluorescent xenon << correct answer >> florescent Which of the following is not a factor which could increase the rate of anastomotic leakage? malnutrion pertonitis ultizing a coagulative therapy malignancy << correct answer >> utilizing a coagulative therapy if performing a choledochojejunostomy what is joined together?common bile duct and jejunum gallbadder and duodenum common hepatic duct and jejunum gallbladder and jejunum << correct answer >> common bile duct and jejunum During instrument insertion, the camera holder should always guide the surgeon by showing a panoramic view? True or False << correct answer >> true The main advantage of using stapling devices is that it is safer for the patient than hand sewing? True or False << correct answer >> false All of the following are benefits of minimal access surgery except? not compromising safety of the patient avoid compromising exposure of the surgical site minimise trauma of surgical site provide for a much faster procedure << correct answer >> provide for a much faster procedure The gas flow rate will decrease if the intra-abdominal pressure falls below the preset level? true or false << correct answer >> false When preforming arterial anastomosis the assistant should hold onto the intima to provide visualization into the artery? True or false << correct answer >> false Which of the following is not a type of anastomosis? pursestring end to end end to side side to side << correct answer >> purse string Everted suture lines have a greater burst pressure than the inverted suture lines? True or False << correct answer >> false Previous irradiation induces fibrosis and reduces blood supply? True or False << correct answer >> true There is lower incidence of post operative adhesions after laparoscopic surgery? True or False << correct answer >> true The angle between the instruments and horizontal plane is called? angle of calot manipulation angleelevation angle azimuth angle << correct answer >> elevation angle Tumor cell implantation at port sites during retrieval of organs is a laparoscopic risk to the patient? true or false << correct answer >> true The majority of recent trials have shown in continuous layer anastomosis has less leakage rates than the interrupted? true or false << correct answer >> false A problem with the laparoscopic surgery is that the surgeons hand must work harder to accomplish the same task with laparoscopic instruments? true or false << correct answer >> true Co 2 is the preferred gas utilized in laparoscopic surgery because? it is readily available it is highly soluble all of the above it is an inert gas << correct answer >> all the above The angel between the active and assisting instruments is referred to as the azimuth angle? True or False << correct answer >> false The axis passing through the centre of the visual field is called? optical vertical horizontal physical << correct answer >> optical An advantage of hand sewn anastomosis is that recurrence of tumor at suture line is less than recurrence of tumor at the staple line? true or false << correct answer >> false Which of the following is centrally mediated effect of CO2? release of vasopressin elevation of the diaphragm decreased cardiac output increased central venous pressure << correct answer >> increased central venous pressure Dark operating rooms during laproscopic surgery increase risk of collision hazards and using wrong instruments? true or false << correct answer >> trueSynthetic absorbable sutures are derived from cattle tendons and chemically treated? true or false << correct answer >> false which class of nonabsorbable suture is charterized by cotton or linen fibers or coated natural or synthetic fibers? class I class II class III class IV << correct answer >> classII suturing through an endoscope in considered a innate talent? true or false << correct answer >> false it is surgical assistants responsibity to make certain all sponge counts are correct? true or false << correct answer >> false surgical gut is obtained from the intestinal serosa of sheep? True or False << correct answer >> false Knot strength would be considered which characteristic of suture? mental tissue reaction handling physical << correct answer >> physical absorbable sutures are derived from healthy animals or from synthetic polymer? true or false << correct answer >> true which suture has a greater tensile strength at week 3? pds monocryl vicryl surgical gut << correct answer >> pds Taper needles are the most common needles used in surgery today? true or false << correct answer >> true which be describes a stitch that may allow for disruption of the surgical site if even on breakage occurs at the suture line? continuous secondary suture line interrruped none of the above << correct answer >> continuous a strand of suture attached to a needle place through and around a vessel is called? stick tietransfixation ligature suture ligature all of the above << correct answer >> all the above ____ refers to sutures that obliterate dead space, preventing serum from accumulation in the wound? interruped suture retention secondary suture primary surture line << correct answer >> primary suture line the following are characteristics of suture material except? physical tissue reaction versatility handling << correct answer >> versatility a continuous circular suture placed to surround an opening hence causing it to close is called a perforated suture? true or false << correct answer >> false There are how may types of self retaining retractors 1 2 3 << correct answer >> 2 Topical skin adhesive should be utilized in areas high tension to obtain a viable closure? true or false << correct answer >> false an inverted lance needle is commonly utilized for suturing of ligments, tendons, and calcified tissues? True or false << correct answer >> false which needle is charaterzed by having a reverse cutting tip with a taper shaft? taper point blunt point cutting taper regular cutting << correct answer >> cutting taper The use of skin staples greatly reduces tissue trauma compared to other closure technique ? True or False << correct answer >> true Which suture material is made form thread spun worm larva? vicryl cottonsilk chromic << correct answer >> silk Blunt point needles literally dissect triable tissue rather than cut it? TRUE OR FALSE << correct answer >> true absorbable sutures are those which are not digested by body enzymes or hydrolyzed in body tissue? true or false << correct answer >> false ____indicates protrusion of the bowel through the separated edges of an abdominal wound? dehiscence sloughing rupure evisceration << correct answer >> evisceration round needle points are also referred to as ____ point needles? fine taper dissecting traumatic << correct answer >> taper When a wound fails to heal by primary union, a more complicated and prolonged healing process takes place. This process is called healing by ____ intention ? first second third fourth << correct answer >> second The direction in which wounds naturally heal is from __ to__? top to bottom side to side inside out outside in << correct answer >> side to side what needle was developed for anterior segment opthalmic surgery? taper cut control released compound curved << correct answer >> compound curved Wound ___is a partial or total separation of layer of tissue after closure? dead space dehisence evisceration sloughing << correct answer >> dehisencewhat is another name given to the side cutting needle? keith j curved spatula mayo << correct answer >> spatula The ____ cutting surgical needle greatly reduces the danger of tissue cutout? top side normal reverse << correct answer >> reverse Plain surgical gut suture is rapidly absorbed and tensile strength is maintained for only 14-21 days true or false << correct answer >> false Knot tensile stength is measured by the force in pounds, which the suture strand can withstand before it breaks when knotted? true or false << correct answer >> true according to the text the patients ______ response protects the patient from infection? inflammatory cellular biologic immune << correct answer >> immune There is no difference in the dehiscence rate of vertical verses transverse incisions? true or false << correct answer >> true Fresh traumatic injuries such as soft tissue lacerations, operating procedures in which gross spillage from the gastrointestinal tract occurs is considered to be war wound classification ? contaminated clean contaminated contaminated -infected clean infected << correct answer >> contamined wounds that have usual normal flora without unusual contamination are classified as what type of wound? clean contaminated clean contaminated dirty infected << correct answer >> clean contaminated Surgical needles are made up of how many basic components ?2 3 4 5 << correct answer >> 3 for the best cosmetic results which direction should incisions be made in relation to the direction of tissue ? diagonally parallel oblilquely circumferentially << correct answer >> parallel ____ is the most serious wound complication affecting surgical patients? dehiscence evisceration infection sloughing << correct answer >> infection The straight line distance from the point of a curved needle to the swage is called the? strength tensile strength depth chord length << correct answer >> chord length The needle that has a third cutting edge on the inside is called a ____ cutting needle? compound conventional spatula blunt << correct answer >> conventional Day 14 through the complete healing phase is called remodeling or ____? inflammatory maturation proliferative granulation << correct answer >> maturation the elimination of dead space in the mound is critical to the healing process? true or false << correct answer >> true Which phase of the wound healing process is the migration or proliferative phase? I II III IV << correct answer >> II which of the following is a major source of bacteria in a surgical setting?people equipment air flow non of the above << correct answer >> people once the drapes are placed it is ok to adjust them if necessary to expose more of the operative field? true or false << correct answer >> false Asepsi is defined as the absence of infectious organisms? true or false << correct answer >> true All of the following agents are examples of fibrin sealants except? evice evithrom tachosil vitagel << correct answer >> evithrom it is impossible to render a persons hand sterol utilizing any type of scrubbing procedure? true or false << correct answer >> true when prepping a patients surgical site, the skin prep usual egis at the incision sight and continues outward? true or false << correct answer >> true Hand hygeine has been recognized as the primary method for decreasing health-care associated infections ? true or false << correct answer >> true its only up to the assistant to make certain sterility is maintained during the surgical procedure? true or false << correct answer >> false What is the largest organ of the body? liver skin tongue heart << correct answer >> skin electrosurgery coagulated bleeding vessels through and action called? mastication fulgeration desiccation dissemination << correct answer >> fulgerationin plate plug formation process,thrombin acts upon soluble fibrinogen in the blood? true or false << correct answer >> false the complete elimination or destruction of all forms of microbial life is called? clean sterilzation cauterization dehydration << correct answer >> sterilzation intravascular is the most common type of invasive pressure monitoring used? true or false << correct answer >> true patients should be instructed to bath with an antimicrobial soap on the evening previous to surgery? true or false << correct answer >> false its bacterial a true latex allergy is under which classification? I III V X << correct answer >> I Its is up to individual facilities to establish and maintain policies regarding surgical attire? true or false << correct answer >> true disposable draping material is usual made of fire and water resistant material so it can be used for any procedure? true or false << correct answer >> false which of the following is not an absorbable suture material? pds novafil chromic vicryl << correct answer >> novafil the most common type of allergic reaction characterized by dry,reddened itch or cracked skin is? allergic contact dermatitis true latex allergy irritant contact dermatitis non of the above << correct answer >> irritant contact dermatitis Thombin plays a central role in hemostatis because it catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin?true or false << correct answer >> true it is acceptable to utilize any alcohol based hand scrub instead of a traditional hand scrub to save time? true or false << correct answer >> false double masking should take place if you know your patient is infected? true or false << correct answer >> false pressure ulcers, regardless of their origin, are considered a positive outcome for patients? true or false << correct answer >> false reusable draping material may be placed and reused as often as possible to eliminate waste and reduce costs. true or false << correct answer >> true A bilroth I gastrectomy is the resection of the diseased portion of the stomach? True or False << correct answer >> True During a total gastrectomy a lateral ____ anastomosis is completed to permit irritating bile and pancreatic fluids to bypass the anastomosis line? pyloric jejunal duodenal sigmoid << correct answer >> jejunal When the subcostal incision is made on the right side of the patient it is used for gallbladder, pancreatic and splenic surgical procedures? True or False << correct answer >> False for gallbladder, common duct or pancreas During a Bilroth II the proximal portion of the stomach is resected? True or False << correct answer >> False the distal portion Hiatal herniorrhaphy is performed to restore the ___to its correct anatomic position in the abdomen? pyloric sphincter cardiac sphincter neuromuscular junction cardioesophageal junction << correct answer >> cardioesophageal junction abdominoperineal resection is the mobilization and and division of a disease segment to the ____ _through a midline incision? jejunumileum lower colon and rectum transverse colon << correct answer >> lower colon and rectum During a Billroth II the right and left___ arteries and veins are clamped, divided and ligated? hepatic gastric esophageal gastroepipolic << correct answer >> gastroepiploic In an abdominoperineal resection as well as lower anterior colon resection,often time the patient is placed in this position versus the supine position ? lateral recumbent modified lithotomy kraske prone << correct answer >> modified lithotomy when dividing the stomach during esophagectomy, what artery is clamped and cut? celiac splenic left gastric inferior mesenteric << correct answer >> left gastric in a right hemicolectomy, an end to end,side to side, end to side anastomosis is performed between the colon and the? ileum jejunum colon sigmoid << correct answer >> ileum When performing gastrojejunostomy a loop of -------is grasped with a babcock forceps and freed from the mesentery ? ileum distal sigmoid proximal jejunum inferior messentery << correct answer >> proximal jeunum The vertical midline incision is the simplest abdominal incision to perform? true or false << correct answer >> true The lateral position is not used for esophageal surgery? true or false << correct answer >> false Total gastrectomy is the complete removal of the stomach? True or False << correct answer >> trueDuring lower anterior resection, after the anastomosis is done, the surgeon observes for air leaks for the anastomosis? True or False << correct answer >> true How many ports are normally used is in a laparoscopic nissen fundoplication? 3 4 5 6 << correct answer >> 5 Excision of an Zenkers diverticulum is removing a weakening in the wall of the ____? ileum jejunum stomach esophagus << correct answer >> esophagus during esophagectomy, the esophagus must be dissected free of the aorta? true or false << correct answer >> true The transverse colectomy is performed for malignant lesions of the descending colon? true or false << correct answer >> false of the transverse colon During a right hemicolectomy a side to side anastomosis can be performed by inserting the GIA stapler into both__ segments and firing the device? jejunal colon ileum sigmoid << correct answer >> colon When performing a laparoscopic nissen fundoplication,sutures are passed through the 5 mm port to place a row of interrupted to join the ____ stomach around the esophagus? fundus gastroesophageal junction pericardiophrenic vessels proximal jeunum << correct answer >> fundus The McBurney incision is a muscle-sparing incision used for removal of appendix? true or false << correct answer >> true During esophgectomy after the chest cavity is open,ribs are spread, lung is retracted ,what is then incised? rectus muscle mediastinal pleura tracheal wallcricopharyngeus muscle << correct answer >> medistinal pleura What type of wound closure occurs when intentionally delayed for three or more days? << correct answer >> tertiary When tying any knot what must be done to ensure a flat throw? << correct answer >> cross suture the fascia located in the subcutaneous fat that must be incorporated for a secure wound is ? << correct answer >> scarpas Which incision are the rectus muscles separated and not incised? << correct answer >> Pfannenstiel When applying a cast and swelling is anticipated, what must be performed to the cast? << correct answer >> bivale What 3 areas in the body does peristalsis take place? << correct answer >> small bowel, uterers esophagus What are the 5 main arteries that feed the large intestines? << correct answer >> ileocolic right colic middle colic left colic sigmoid What is the most secure way to close the fascia? << correct answer >> simple interrupted what is diverticulitis? << correct answer >> inflammation of the diverticulum When performing a thyroidectomy, what nerve must be identified and protected? << correct answer >> recurring laryngeal The fascia located in the subcutaneous fat that must be incorporated for a secure wound is? << correct answer >> scarpas The incision used for an open appendectomy is ? << correct answer >> McBurney What is the blood suppy to the ACL? << correct answer >> middle genicular artery What is the condition, in which muscle spasms in the lower colon cause abdominal pain without inflammation ? << correct answer >> diverticular diseaseWhat 2 nerves must be spared during a modified radical mastectomy? << correct answer >> Thoric dorsa long thoric Which way do you move the knee to expose the lateral compartment? << correct answer >> varus What is the thin muscle connecting the junction between the duodenum,jejunum and duodenojual flexure to the superior mesenteric artery and coeliac artery << correct answer >> ligament of treitz The inferior mesenteric artery supplies which parts of the body? << correct answer >> Transverse colon distal 3rd colon left colon sigmod upper rectum The superior mesenteric artery supplies which part of the body? << correct answer >> intestine lower part of the duodenum 2/3 parts of the transverse colon pancreas During laparoscopic surgery over inflation of the abdominal cavity can cause? << correct answer >> aorta compression What position do you put the in knee to expose the medial compartment? << correct answer >> Valgus What is called when a surgical incision opens and the abdominal organs protrude or come out? << correct answer >> wound evisceration When doing a end to end anastomosis, what should be checked? << correct answer >> The tissue donuts should be intact and include all tissue layers When performing pelvic surgery, what structure should be identified immediately ? << correct answer >> utterers The triangle of kalot contains which 2 structures? << correct answer >> cystic duct common hepatic duct How many lobes are found are on the right of side of the chest << correct answer >> 3 In an adult, what is the typical insufflation needed for adequate exposer? << correct answer >> 12-15 MHGWhat is the name of the fascia that is responsible for holding the kidneys in place? << correct answer >> Gerodias What are the 3 types of surgical anastomosis? << correct answer >> end to end side to side end to side What incision is used for proximal portion of the stomach and distal section of the esophagus? << correct answer >> Thoracoabdominal incison What 3 areas in the body does peristalsis take place? << correct answer >> small bowel uterures esphogus What type of wound closure occurs when intentionally delayed for 3 or more days? << correct answer >> tertiary Name the 2 tissue layers seen in the bowel or stomach? << correct answer >> serosa and mucosa Where in the in abdomen is the abdominal aorta located? << correct answer >> retro peritoneally In which incision are the rectus muscles separated and not incised? << correct answer >> pfannenstiel When applying a cast and swelling is anticipated, what must be performed to the cast? << correct answer >> Bivale When tying any knot what must first be done to ensure a flat throw? << correct answer >> cross suture what is the term for responabilty for a fault or wrong or blame? << correct answer >> culpability What is a surgical wound is characterized by tissue loss with an inability to approximate wound edges healing occurs through? << correct answer >> granulation (secondary intention) Blood is supplied to the brain via which 2 arteries? << correct answer >> internal carotid and verterbral What are the 4 ways to close your anterior and posterior fascia layer? << correct answer >> simplesimple running locking running