NR511 Week 4 Midterm Exam (version 2) / NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam: Differential Diagnosis and Primary Care Practicum : Chamberlain | 100 % VERIFIED ANSWERS, GRADE A

NR 511 Week 4 Midterm Exam / NR511 Week 4 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Physical Assessment: Chamberlain NR511 Midterm Exam / NR 511 Midterm Exam (Latest): Advanced Physical Assessment: Chamberlain Question 1: Women are at the highest risk for developing postpartum depression for up to how long after childbirth? 2 weeks 1 month 3 months 6 months Question 2: CPT coding offers the uniformed language used for reporting medical services and procedures performed by physician and nonphysician practitioners. Clinicians are paid based on calculated resource costs that are calculated based on practice components. a. Clinician education loans b. Clinician practice liability and malpractice expense c. Clinician reported cost reduction efforts d. Clinician volume of patients treated Question 3: Janet is a 30-year-old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspicion of cauda equina compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? a. Gastrocnemius weakness b. A reduced or absent ankle reflex c. Numbness in the lateral foot d. Paresthesia of the perineum and buttocks Question 4: A 58-year-old woman who had a total abdominal hysterectomy at the age of 45 is diagnosed with atrophic vaginitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment? a. Conjugated estrogen 0.625 mg/day oral b. Estradiol 7.5 mcg/24 hr vaginal ring c. Medroxyprogesterone 10 mg/day oral d. Conjugated estrogen 0.3 mg medroxyprogesterone 1.5 mg/day oral Question 5: Which of the following is a specific test for multiple sclerosis (MS)? a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b. Computed tomography (CT) scan c. A lumbar puncture d. There is no specific test. Question 6: Most adult poisonings are: a. intentional and self-inflicted. b. accidental. c. caused by someone wishing to do harm to the person. d. not attributed to any reason. Question 7: A 60-year-old man presents with an enlarged scrotum. The clinician uses a penlight to transilluminate the scrotum. In a patient with a hydrocele, what would the clinician expect to find? a. The scrotum will be dark. b. The scrotum will appear light pink or yellow. c. The scrotum will appear milky white. d. The internal structures will be clearly visible. Question 8: Which clinical feature is the first to be affected in increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?What is the normal number for the Glascow Coma Scale? a. 7 b. 9 c. 10 d. 15 Question 9: S presents in the clinic with pain, tenderness, erythema, and swelling of his left great toe. The clinician suspects acute gout. Which of the following should the clinician suspect in the initial test results for this patient? a. Elevated uric acid level b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Decreased urine pH d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP) Question 10: Which solution should be used when irrigating lacerated tissue over a wound on the arm? a. Dilute povidone-iodine solution b. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) c. Saline solution infused with an antibiotic d. Saline irrigation or soapy water Question 11: Which ethical principle reflects respect for all persons and their self-determination? a. Autonomy b. Beneficence c. Justice d. Veracity Question 12: During a digital rectal exam (DRE) on a 75-year-old man, the clinician suspects the patient has prostate cancer. What physical finding should make the clinician suspicious? a. An enlarged rubbery gland b. A hard irregular gland c. A tender gland d. A boggy gland Question 13: How often should the clinician examine the feet of a person with diabetes? a. Once a year b. Every 6 months c. Every 3 months d. Every visit Question 14: Which of the following medications is the treatment of choice for trichomonas? (Points: 2) a. Metranidazole b. Ceftriaxone c. Diflucan d. Doxycycline Question 15: Immunizations are an example of which type of prevention? (Points: 2) a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary Question 16: What is the treatment of choice for a patient diagnosed with testicular cancer? a. Radical orchidectomy b. Lumpectomy c. Radiation implants d. All of the above Question 17: George, aged 59, complains of a flulike illness, including fever, chills, and myalgia after returning from visiting his grandchildren in New England. He reports having discovered a rash or red spot that grew in size on his right leg. What disease are you considering? a. A viral syndromes b. Lyme disease c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever d. Relapsing fever Question 18: A 24-year-old woman presents to the clinic with dysuria, dyspareunia, and a mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Her boyfriend was recently treated for nongonococcal urethritis. What sexually transmitted disease (STD) has she most probably been exposed to? a. Gonorrhea b. Human papillomavirus (HPV) c. Chlamydia d. Trichomonas Question 19: What is usually the first sign or symptom that a patient would present with that would make you suspect herpes zoster? a. A stabbing type of pain on one small area of the body b. A vesicular skin lesion on one side of the body c. A pain that is worse upon awakening d. A lesion on the exterior ear canal Question 20: Which drug commonly prescribed for burns is active against a wide spectrum of microbial pathogens and is the most frequently used agent for partial- and full-thickness thermal injuries? a. Clotrimazole cream (Lotrimen) b. Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) c. Silver nitrate d. Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) Question 21: Which of the following is a role of the advanced practice nurse in palliative cancer care? a. Detecting cancer in asymptomatic patients or those with specific symptoms b. Arranging for follow-up care, including psychosocial and spiritual support c. Identifying and managing complications of care d. All of the above Question 22: Which type of burn injury results in destruction of epidermis with most of the dermis, yet the epidermal cells lining hair follicles and sweat glands remain intact? a. Superficial burns b. Superficial partial-thickness burns c. Deep partial-thickness burns d. Full-thickness burns Question 23: The criteria for diagnosing generalized anxiety disorder in the American Psychiatric Association’s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (text revision) (DSM-IV-TR) state that excessive worry or apprehension must be present more days than not for at least: a. 1 month. b. 3 months. c. 6 months. d. 12 months. Question 24: In the United States, what is the second most common connective tissue disease and the most destructive to the joints? a. Osteoarthritis b. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) c. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) d. Sjogren's syndrome Question 25: A sunscreen with a sun-protection factor (SPF) of at least what number will block most harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation? a. 4 b. 8 c. 10 d. 15 Question 26: The hallmark of an absence seizure is: a. No activity at all. b. A blank stare. c. Urine is usually voided involuntarily. d. The attack usually lasts several minutes. Question 27: The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety? a. Acetylcholine b. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) c. Dopamine d. Serotonin Question 28: Which characteristic of delirium helps to distinguish delirium from dementia? a. Abrupt onset b. Impaired attention c. Affective changes d. Delusions Question 29: A 26-year-old woman is seen with complaints of irregular vaginal bleeding. Which of the following tests should be the first priority? a. Pregnancy test b. Pelvic ultrasound c. Endometrial biopsy d. Platelet count Question 30: The clinician should question the patient with suspected gout about use of which of these medications that may be a risk factor? a. Low-dose aspirin b. Thiazide diuretics c. Ethambutol d. All of the above Question 31: A bulla is: a. A vesicle larger than 1 cm in diameter. b. An elevated solid mass with a hard texture, and the shape and borders can be regular or irregular. c. A superficial elevated lesion filled with purulent fluid. d. Thinning of the skin (epidermis and dermis) that appears white or translucent. Question 32: Sam is a 25-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low back strain based on his history of localized low back pain and muscle spasm along with a normal neurological examination. As the clinician, you explain to Sam that low back pain is a diagnosis of exclusion. Which of the following symptoms would alert the clinician to the more serious finding of a herniated nucleus pulposus or ruptured disc? a. Morning stiffness and limited mobility of the lumbar spine b. Unilateral radicular pain symptoms that extend below the knee and are equal to or greater than the back pain c. Fever, chills, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. Pathologic fractures, severe night pain, weight loss, and fatigue Question 33: Which of the following statements is true concerning the musculoskeletal exam? a. The uninvolved side should be examined initially and compared to the involved side. b. The part of the body that is causing the patient pain should be examined first. c. The patient should not be asked to perform active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises whenever possible to avoid causing pain. d. Radiographs should always be obtained prior to examination so as not to cause further injury to the patient. Question 34: The current goal of treatment for a patient with HIV infection is which of the following? a. Viral suppression of HIV to undetectable levels in the peripheral blood b. Compete eradication of the virus c. Encouraging the person to have no contact with uninfected individuals d. Complete abstinence Question 35: Which of the following classes of drugs should be used as first-line therapy for treatment of delirium? a. Benzodiazepines b. Antipsychotics c. Anticonvulsants d. Antidepressants Question 36: After removing a tack from a type 2 diabetic’s heel and evaluating the site for infection, what is the best plan for this patient? a. Suggest she use a heating pad to improve circulation b. Refer to a podiatrist for a foot care treatment plan c. Send her for acupuncture treatments d. All of the above Question 37: Which of the following statements is true concerning the management of the client with a herniated disc? a. Muscle relaxants and narcotics can be used to control moderate pain but should be discontinued after 3 weeks of use. b. An epidural injection is helpful in reducing leg pain that has persisted for at least 3 weeks after the herniation occurred. c. Intolerable pain for more than a 3-month period is an indication for surgical intervention. d. All of the above Question 38: Which patient is more likely to have a cluster headache? a. A female in her reproductive years b. A 40-year-old African American male c. A 55-year-old female who drinks 10 cups of coffee daily d. A 45-year-old male awakened at night Question 39: The main mechanism for avoiding a lawsuit involves: a. Good liability insurance b. A collaborating physician c. Good documentation d. Open communication skills Question 40: A 45-year-old woman is seen in the clinic with complaints of a vaginal discharge. The clinician identifies clue cells on the vaginal smear. Which of the following diagnoses is associated with this finding? a. Trichomonas b. Bacterial vaginosis c. Human papillomavirus (HPV) d. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) Question 41: Which of the following laboratory findings should the clinician expect in a patient with untreated Graves’ disease? a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) b. Elevated T4 c. Elevated TRH d. All of the above Question 42: A 23-year-old sexually active woman presents for her first Pap smear. Her history includes nulligravida, age at first intercourse 14, and more than 10 sexual partners. Which of the following conditions should the clinician be particularly alert for during her exam? a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) b. Endometrial hyperplasia c. Vagismus d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome Question 43: When may confidentiality be overridden? a. When personal information is available on the computer b. When a clinician needs to share information with a billing company c. When an insurance company wants to know the results of a breast cancer gene test d. When a patient has a communicable disease Question 44: A patient is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) changes should the clinician expect as a manifestation of the disease? a. Sinus bradycardia b. Atrial fibrillation c. Supraventricular tachycardia d. U waves Question 45: The most cost-effective screening test to determine HIV status is which of the following? a. Western Blot b. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) c. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test d. Viral load Question 46: After 6 months of synthroid therapy, the clinician should expect which of the following in the repeat thyroid studies? a. Elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) b. Normal TSH c. Low TSH d. Undetectable TSH Question 47: The vegetarian patient with gout asks the clinician about food that he should avoid. The clinician should advise the patient to avoid which of the following foods? a. Rice b. Carrots c. Spinach d. Potatoes Question 48: A 64-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents to the clinic with the complaint of “my feet feel like they are on fire.” He has a loss of vibratory sense, 1 Achilles reflex, and a tack embedded in his left heel. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment? a. Tricyclic antidepressants b. Capsacin cream c. Vitamin B12 injections d. Insulin Question 49 : In the consensus model for Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) regulation, the “C” of LACE represents? a. Commitment b. Consensus c. Certification d. Collaboration Question 50: Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain? a. Decreased C-reactive protein b. Hyperalbuminemia c. Morning stiffness d. Weight gain