•flecainide - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

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IBHRE CEPS exam 2024 with correct answers
  • IBHRE CEPS exam 2024 with correct answers

  • Exam (elaborations) • 6 pages • 2024
  • Class 1 Anti-Arrhythmic Mechanism correct answersSodium (Na) Channel Blockers Class II Anti-Arrhythmic Mechanism correct answersBeta Blockers Class III Anti-Arrhythmic Mechanism correct answersPotassium (K) Channel Blockers Class IV Anti-Arrhythmic Mechanism correct answersL-Type Calcium (Ca) Channel Blocker Class Ia drugs correct answers-Quinidine (rarely used) -Procainamide -Disopyramide. Na Channel blockers that raise APD Class Ib drugs correct answers-Lidocaine -Mexilet...
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IBHRE EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
  • IBHRE EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

  • Exam (elaborations) • 7 pages • 2024
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  • 101: Which of the following limited sens diagnostic tools has not been shown to be a + predictor for increased risk of SCD? Signal alternans T-wave alternans Heart rate variability P-wave dispersion - Answer-P-wave disperson 102:What will significantly lower myocardial stim thresholds? mineralocorticoids lidocaine verapamil dexamethasone sodium phosphate - Answer-dexamethasone sodium phosphate 103: What may elevate myocardia stim thresholds? acidsosis, exercise, atropine eating,...
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PLE 2021 PHARMA (UPDATED) Questions with complete solution
  • PLE 2021 PHARMA (UPDATED) Questions with complete solution

  • Exam (elaborations) • 41 pages • 2024
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  • PLE 2021 PHARMA (UPDATED) Questions with complete solutionClass I antiarrhythmics - correct answer Na channel blockers block Phase 0 Class 1A - Quarter Pounder Delight Quinidine Procainamide Disopyramide Class 1B - Lettuce Tomato Pipino with Mayo Lidocaine Tocainide Phenytoin Mexiletine Class 1C - More Fries Please Moricizine Flecainide Propafenone Class II antiarrhythmics - correct answer Beta blockers block Phase 4
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IBHRE CEPS 2018 EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)  A+ GRADED
  • IBHRE CEPS 2018 EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) A+ GRADED

  • Exam (elaborations) • 5 pages • 2024
  • Class 1 Antiarrhythmic Mechanism - ANS Sodium (Na) Channel Blockers Class II Antiarrhythmic Mechanism - ANS Beta Blockers Class III Antiarrhythmic Mechanism - ANS Potassium (K) Channel Blockers Class IV Antiarrhythmic Mechanism - ANS L-Type Calcium (Ca) Channel Blocker Class A drugs - ANS -Quinidine (rarely used) -Procainamide -Disopyramide. Na Channel blockers that raise APD Class Ib drugs - ANS -Lidocaine -Mexiletine -Phenytoin Na Channel blockers th...
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CEFM EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS
  • CEFM EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS

  • Exam (elaborations) • 9 pages • 2024
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  • CEFM EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS When is fetal SVT seen? - Answer- Common around 30-32 weeks; may be seen as early as 15w, or can appear suddenly during labor. Treatment meds for fetal SVT - Answer- Digoxin IV then PO for maintenance, dosing up to 100% higher than for no pregnant adults. If unsuccessful, give flecainide, adenosine, amiodarone, sotalol, or propranolol Causes of congenital heart block - Answer- Maternal collagen vascular disease like lupus or...
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Pharmacology Antidysrhythmics Test with 100% Verified Solutions | Updated & Verified | 2024
  • Pharmacology Antidysrhythmics Test with 100% Verified Solutions | Updated & Verified | 2024

  • Exam (elaborations) • 15 pages • 2024
  • -treats atrial and ventricular tachydysrhyhmias -adverse effects: dysrhythmias, blood disorders, lupus like syndrome, vomiting, diarrhea, prolonged QT interval, - Procainamide (Pronestyl) -Class Ib -block sodium channels -accelerate repolarization -increase or decrease APD -used for atrial and ventricular tachydysrhythmias caused by digitalis toxicity or prolonged QT interval - Phenytoin -used to treat ventricular tachydysrhythmias -raises ventricular fibrillation threshold -can cause...
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RCIS -DEVICES QUESTIONS & ANSWERS SOLVED 100% CORRECT!
  • RCIS -DEVICES QUESTIONS & ANSWERS SOLVED 100% CORRECT!

  • Exam (elaborations) • 10 pages • 2024
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  • What does EOL stand for? - Answer-END of LIFE= Pacemaker fails to function or dies What does ERI stand for? - Answer-Elective Replacement Indicators= Consider replacement, pacemaker will die soon (low battery) what does BOL stand for? - Answer-Beginning of life = Original settings when pacemaker is new from factory What does POR stand for? - Answer-Power on reset= near death with loss of volatile memory, default backup pacing starts. The most common bradyarrhythmia's are caused by: - Ans...
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IBHRE Exam Questions and Answers 2024 Graded A
  • IBHRE Exam Questions and Answers 2024 Graded A

  • Exam (elaborations) • 18 pages • 2024
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  • Name three causes of atrial standstill Myocardial Infarction Digitalis glycosides Hyperkalemia A 59 yo female with ischemic cardiomyopathy presents with palpitations, lightheadedness, insomnia and feels jittery. She has a CRT-D device. Takes Furosemide, potassium, lisinopril, carvedilol and amiodarone. Seeing short runs of VT on her device interrogation. Hyperthyroidism What would be your best next step for ordering tests? Thyroid panel Which antiarrhythmic drug is least likely to inc...
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IBHRE Exam questions With Complete Solutions
  • IBHRE Exam questions With Complete Solutions

  • Exam (elaborations) • 25 pages • 2023
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  • Name three causes of atrial standstill Myocardial Infarction Digitalis glycosides Hyperkalemia A 59 yo female with ischemic cardiomyopathy presents with palpitations, lightheadedness, insomnia and feels jittery. She has a CRT-D device. Takes Furosemide, potassium, lisinopril, carvedilol and amiodarone. Seeing short runs of VT on her device interrogation. Hyperthyroidism What would be your best next step for ordering tests? Thyroid panel Which antiarrhythmic drug is least likely to...
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NPLEX II Pharmacology Questions and Answers well Explained Latest 2024/2025 Update 100% Correct.
  • NPLEX II Pharmacology Questions and Answers well Explained Latest 2024/2025 Update 100% Correct.

  • Exam (elaborations) • 97 pages • 2024
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  • Amoxicillin with clavulanate - SE: Nausea, headache risk of yeast. Use: Strep ear infection Interactions: CI: ALLERGY to penicillin Mechanism: Beta-Lactam antibiotic with beta-lactamase inhibitor. Allopurinol - SE: itch, rash. When injected: vomiting and kidney. Use: Preventing uric acid and gout, as well as use in crohn's and tumor lysis. Interactions: Inactivates azathiprine. didanosine. CI: DO NOT START DURING GOUT Mechanism: Xanthine oxidase inhibitor 5-fluorouracil - SE: Inflamma...
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