Hyper dialysis - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

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WGU Pathophysiology Study Guide: D236 Pathophysiology Lesson 1 TO  Lesson 11
  • WGU Pathophysiology Study Guide: D236 Pathophysiology Lesson 1 TO Lesson 11

  • Class notes • 28 pages • 2022
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  • WGU Pathophysiology Study Guide: D236 Pathophysiology Lesson 1 TO Lesson 11 WGU Pathophysiology Study Guide: D236 Pathophysiology Lesson 1 TO Lesson 11: Pathophysiology Remediation Lesson 1: Homeostasis Concepts 1. Starling's Law of Capillary forces is the force behind the movements of fluid in capillary beds throughout the body. The two forces at work are hydrostatic and osmotic pressures. Homeostasis is achieved when these two forces are equal in the capillary- cell interfaces. When...
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NUR 265 HESI Med Surg Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers
  • NUR 265 HESI Med Surg Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers

  • Exam (elaborations) • 18 pages • 2023
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  • ARF Post Renal Correct Answer Renal Calculus: Lithiasis, BPH Risk for Hyperparathyroidism ^ Calcium Pathological Fractures Prevent Volume Depletion Manif: low urine output, decreased BP / Pulse Orthostatic Hypotension, thirst ^ Blood Osmolarity Hemodialysis Correct Answer Pharmokenetic excretion adversely affected Monitor for digtoxicity / hyperkalemia / dillusional hyponatremia 3 requirements: access to blood, semipermeable membrane, dialysate More Effective/ Shorter time #1 Comp...
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NUR 265 Advanced Exam 1: A+ Guide: Latest updated
  • NUR 265 Advanced Exam 1: A+ Guide: Latest updated

  • Exam (elaborations) • 19 pages • 2023
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  • Anatomy of the Kidney: - The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney. - Normal GFR is 120-125. - If 75% of nephrons quit = renal insufficiency. - Kidneys are sensitive to changes in cardiac output. VOLUME DEPENDENT. A decrease in urine output indicates a decrease in cardiac output. - If the SBP is below 70 for over 40 minutes, the kidney will become hypo then ischemic. - If the SBP drops, the arterioles dilate. If the SBP elevate, arterioles constrict. Normal Functions of the Kidney...
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Hurst Readiness Exam 4: Questions & Answers Latest With 100%Verified Solut1ons.
  • Hurst Readiness Exam 4: Questions & Answers Latest With 100%Verified Solut1ons.

  • Exam (elaborations) • 38 pages • 2024
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  • Hurst Readiness Exam 4: Questions & Answers Latest With 100%Verified Solut1ons. A charge nurse is planning care for several clients on the unit. Which activities can the nurse safely delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? 1. Administer a nebulizer treatment to a client diagnosed with pneumonia. 2. Obtain vital signs on a postoperative client who required naloxone 5 minutes ago. 3. Report a urinary output (UOP) less than 50 ml/hr on a post-op client. 4. Assist a client with ...
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DaVita PCT exam May 2021 updated already passed
  • DaVita PCT exam May 2021 updated already passed

  • Exam (elaborations) • 12 pages • 2024
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  • DaVita PCT exam May 2021Number 1 & 2 cause of (CKD) chronic kidney diease - correct answer 1- diabetes 2-hypertension In (AKI) acute kidney injury it is better to keep patients? - correct answer too wet, rather than too dry with fluid removal goals 3 sub-groups of ckd? - correct answer 1-pre-renal-interferes w/ BF to the kidneys, causes-injuries/renal artery clot 2-intra-renal-damages nephron directly, causes-diabetes/hypertension/PKD 3-post-renal-any condition interfering w/ urine leav...
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Dental OSCE Exam Study Questions and Answers with Complete Verified Solutions Graded A 2024
  • Dental OSCE Exam Study Questions and Answers with Complete Verified Solutions Graded A 2024

  • Exam (elaborations) • 26 pages • 2024
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  • Immunosuppressant drug used in Transplant Patients that causes Gingival Hyperplasia - Cyclosporine How is Perio disease related to diabetes? - Glucose levels are increased. Cause for cement failure? - increased SOLUBILITY of the cement Before trimming teeth on a stone cast for an immediate denture, you must first... - mark a line 3 mm above the free gingival margin. ** Which analgesic(s) is safe for a Patient with kidney disease? - Tylenol (acetaminophen) ONLY. NOT NSAIDS OR ASPI...
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NGN NCLEX EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% PASS
  • NGN NCLEX EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% PASS

  • Exam (elaborations) • 110 pages • 2024
  • NGN NCLEX EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% PASS pH - Correct Answer ️️ -7.35-7.45 PCO2 - Correct Answer ️️ -35-45 HCO3 - Correct Answer ️️ -22-26 PO2 - Correct Answer ️️ -80-100% SaO2 - Correct Answer ️️ -96-100% BUN - Correct Answer ️️ -8-25 Creatinine - Correct Answer ️️ -0.5-1 Waste product filtered out by kidneys Total cholesterol - Correct Answer ️️ -under 200 HDL - Correct Answer ️️ -30-70 Good cholesterol LDL Bad cholesterol - Correct Answe...
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BCACP – Nephrology Questions And Answers With Complete Solutions
  • BCACP – Nephrology Questions And Answers With Complete Solutions

  • Exam (elaborations) • 6 pages • 2023
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  • CKD stage G 1-5 correct answer: G1 CrCl>90 G2 CrCl 60-89 G3a CrCl 45-59 G3b CrCl 30-44 G4 CrCl 15-29 G5 CrCl <15 OR dialysis (G5D) ACR = albumin / Scr, what are stage A 1-3 correct answer: A1 - ACR< 30mg/g A2 - ACR 30-300 mg/g A3 - ACR > 300 mg/g A1c goal for CKD correct answer: 7.0% (or more, depending on pt) BP goal for CKD correct answer: A1 alb <30 : 140/90 A2 or 3 alb >30 : 130/80 Statin use in CKD? correct answer: evidence shows possible benefit i...
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PTCB 2024 WALGREENS Exam Questions And Answers 100% Solved 2024
  • PTCB 2024 WALGREENS Exam Questions And Answers 100% Solved 2024

  • Exam (elaborations) • 23 pages • 2024
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  • PTCB 2024 WALGREENS Exam Questions And Answers 100% Solved 2024 which organ in the body is primarily responsible for the metabolism of drugs? - answerliver what is bioequivalence? - answerdrug products that are pharmaceutical equivalents that have the same rate/extent of absorption when administered using the same dose of the active ingredient. what does ADME stand for in pharmacokinetics? - answerA - absorption D - distribution M - metabolism E - excretion/elimination what does NTI me...
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PCA exam questions
  • PCA exam questions

  • Exam (elaborations) • 16 pages • 2024
  • PCA exam questions Per Davita policy, fever and chills is defined as a. Any temperature greater than 99°F or increase over baseline of 1°F with symptoms b. Any temperature greater than 99°F or increase over baseline of 1°F without symptoms c. Any temperature greater than 100°F or increase over baseline of 2°F with symptoms d. Any temperature greater than 100°F or increase over baseline of 2°F without symptoms c. Any temperature greater than 100°F or increase over baseline of 2°F ...
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