Aids labs - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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RNC OB Part 1: Factors Affecting Fetus and Newborn Questions with Correct Answers
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300 Correct Answer PreE is present when SBP is > 140 and DBP is greater than 90 and proteinuria is greater than _______mg per 24 hours (or 1g/L on dipstick) 
 
Proteinuria Correct Answer Patient may be considered preeclamptic in absence of ____________ if she has headache, visual disturbances, RUQ pain, or other abnormal labs 
 
3 Correct Answer CHTN in pregnancy is HTN present before 20th week gestation or perists after ___ months postpartum 
 
Vertical Correct Answer Most infants infected w...
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RNC OB Part 1: Factors Affecting Fetus and Newborn 100% Solved
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RNC OB Part 1: Factors Affecting Fetus and Newborn 100% Solved 
PreE is present when SBP is > 140 and DBP is greater than 90 and proteinuria is greater than _______mg per 24 hours (or 1g/L on dipstick) 300 
Patient may be considered preeclamptic in absence of ____________ if she has headache, visual disturbances, RUQ pain, or other abnormal labs Proteinuria 
CHTN in pregnancy is HTN present before 20th week gestation or perists after ___ months postpartum 3 
Most infants infected with AIDS/HI...
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RNC OB Part 1: Factors Affecting Fetus and Newborn || with Accurate Answers.
- Exam (elaborations) • 9 pages • 2024
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300 correct answers PreE is present when SBP is > 140 and DBP is greater than 90 and proteinuria is greater than _______mg per 24 hours (or 1g/L on dipstick) 
 
Proteinuria correct answers Patient may be considered preeclamptic in absence of ____________ if she has headache, visual disturbances, RUQ pain, or other abnormal labs 
 
3 correct answers CHTN in pregnancy is HTN present before 20th week gestation or perists after ___ months postpartum 
 
Vertical correct answers Most infants infect...
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MDC 1 FINAL EXAM (Spring 2023)
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MDC 1 FINAL EXAM (Spring 2023) 
 
- Temp/warmth 
- Low/High CBC 
- Increased HR 
- Low BP 
- Increased respiratory rate 
- Redness 
Infection S/S 
- Rotate patient every 2 hours 
- Reposition 
- Padding 
- PROM 
- Barrier cream 
- Keep dry 
- Move using a lifting device 
Nursing interventions to decrease risk of pressure injuries 
CD4 will be lower not less than 200 
CD8 will be normal 
HIV labs 
CD4 will be less than 200 
CD8 will be increased. 
AIDS labs 
- Prevents the virus from multiplying,...
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ENT - PAEA Emergency Medicine EOR Topics Questions with Complete Solutions Rated A+
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ENT - PAEA Emergency Medicine EOR 
Topics Questions with Complete Solutions 
Rated A+ 
Dx? *fever*, *sore throat* +/- exudates, *posterior* cervical LAD, malaise, myalgias, general 
LAD, *splenomegaly*, hepatomegaly, petechial rash in 5% (especially if given ampicillin), sx's 
lasting for mos, transmission by saliva, seen in young adults; tx? supporting labs? dx: 
epstein-barr virus (infectious mononucleosis) aka HHV-4 
tx: supportive (rest, analgesics, antipyretics), corticosteroids (only if a...
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NR 507 Final EXAM Study questions with complete solutions
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NR 507 Final EXAM Study questions with complete solutions Endometrial Cycle Three Phases: Proliferative Phase, Secretory Phase, Ischemic Phase, Ovulation occurs between the follicular/proliferative and the luteal/secretory phase 
uterine prolapse the decent of the cervix or entire uterus into the vaginal canal ** can be severe protruding completely through vagina and protrude from introitus 
PCOS Oligo-ovulation or anolvulation elevated androgen levels and polycystic ovaries 
testicular cancer h...
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CSMLS MLA Study Set Questions & Answers Rated A+
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What 3 types of information is in HIA? - Answer-Diagnostic, treatment and care information 
-Person's physical and mental health 
-Treatment they are having or have received 
-Drug or health care aids 
-Health care benefits paid or provided 
Health services Provider information 
-information on health authorities 
Used in workforce planning, determining if a provider's right to practice has been cancelled or 
suspended 
Registered Information 
-Demographic information 
-Address 
-Citizenship 
...
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NFDN 2003 Unit 5 Exam | Questions & 100% Correct Answers (Verified) | Latest Update | Grade A+
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Pre-op checklist 
: H&P (Hx & Physical), charts (old & new) 
Informed Consent 
Marked surgical site 
Name / Allergy Band 
Labs, X-rays, EKG, special testing 
Jewelry, dentures, glasses, hearing aids, prosthesis REMOVED 
No makeup/nail polish 
NPO status as required 
Pt teaching and understanding for post op procedures 
latex allergy risk factors 
: allergies to bananas, avocado, chestnut, papaya, peaches 
health care workers, hairdressers, cleaning staff 
H/O of multiple surgeries 
clients with ...
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MDC 1 FINAL EXAM (Spring 2023)
- Exam (elaborations) • 7 pages • 2023
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MDC 1 FINAL EXAM (Spring 2023) 
 
- Temp/warmth 
- Low/High CBC 
- Increased HR 
- Low BP 
- Increased respiratory rate 
- Redness 
Infection S/S 
- Rotate patient every 2 hours 
- Reposition 
- Padding 
- PROM 
- Barrier cream 
- Keep dry 
- Move using a lifting device 
Nursing interventions to decrease risk of pressure injuries 
CD4 will be lower not less than 200 
CD8 will be normal 
HIV labs 
CD4 will be less than 200 
CD8 will be increased. 
AIDS labs 
- Prevents the virus from multiplying,...
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ADULT HEALTH Exam 4 Study Guide
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ADULT HEALTH Exam 4 Study GuideMeningitis - 3 
Meningitis- is an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord. 
- Viral- Self limiting (MOST COMMON TYPE) (CSF: clear, normal glucose, increase WBC count) 
- Fungal- Cryptococcus neoformans common in AIDS patients. 
- Bacterial - LIFE THREATENING. STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE MENINGOCOCCAL 
(NEISSERIA) ( CSF: Cloudy, decrease glucose, increase WBC count) 
MENINGOCOCCAL IS A MEDICAL EMERGENCY WITH FAIRLY HIGH MORTALITY RATE, OFTEN ...
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