Intraarticular fracture - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

Surgery risk classes Class 1: benefits outweigh risk, should be done Class 2a: reasonable to perform Class 2b: should be considered Class 3: rarely appropriate General rules for surgery: testing ECG before surgery only if coronary disease, except when low risk surgery Stress test not indicated before surgery Do not do prophylactic coronary revascularization Meds before surgery - Diabetic agents: Use insulin therapy to maintain glycemic goals(iii) Discontinue biguanides, a...

NR511 - FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2023/2024 musculoskeletal Pathology Statistics - CORRECT ANSWER-- Generally self limiting - One of the most common reasons for Visits to clinician. - Diagnostically challenging (Many resemble each other) - Take time often to evolve into diagnosable disease. Musculoskeletal Differential Diagnoses Categories - CORRECT ANSWER--Trauma - Infection - Metabolic disorders - Circulatory disorder - Tumor - Synovial conditions - Congenital or developmental proble...

ONC Sports Injuries/Orthopedic Trauma Practice Exam 50 Questions with Verified Answers A 48-year-old athlete sustains a ruptured Achilles tendon during triathlon training. In discussing the personal and medical history with the patient, the nurse should recognize which of the following as a risk factor for this injury? a. Long distance swimming exercises b. Ongoing treatment for gout c. Attending a weekly spinning class d. Antihistamine use for seasonal allergies - CORRECT ANSWER Key: b ...

ABFM Musculoskeletal questions and answers 100% correctMost effective medication for fibromyalgia? TCAs Proper treatment for Boxer's fracture (fracture of 5th metacarpal head) ulnar gutter splint (immobilizes the wrist, hand and fourth/ fifth digits). Wrist is positioned in slight extension; x 3-4 weeks of continuous splinting Goal for vertebral compression fractures? early mobilization; no not need to keep recumbent in bed until back brace is made cubital tunnel syndrom...

AAPC CPC Final Exam Real Exam With Questions And Correct Answers(Verified Answers)| Garded A+ A 46-year-old female had a previous biopsy that indicated positive malignant margins anteriorly on the right side of her neck. A 0.5 cm margin was drawn out and a 15 blade scalpel was used for full excision of an 8 cm lesion. Layered closure was performed after the removal. The specimen was sent for permanent histopathologic examination. What are the CPT® code(s) for this procedure? A. 11626 ...

Surgery risk classes - correct answers Class 1: benefits outweigh risk, should be done Class 2a: reasonable to perform Class 2b: should be considered Class 3: rarely appropriate General rules for surgery: testing - correct answers ECG before surgery only if coronary disease, except when low risk surgery Stress test not indicated before surgery Do not do prophylactic coronary revascularization Meds before surgery - correct answers - Diabetic agents: Use insulin therapy to maintain...

NR511 - FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE 2023/2024 musculoskeletal Pathology Statistics - CORRECT ANSWER-- Generally self limiting - One of the most common reasons for Visits to clinician. - Diagnostically challenging (Many resemble each other) - Take time often to evolve into diagnosable disease. Musculoskeletal Differential Diagnoses Categories - CORRECT ANSWER--Trauma - Infection - Metabolic disorders - Circulatory disorder - Tumor - Synovial conditions - Congenital or developmental proble...

CPC Practice Exam 2. Questions with accurate answers, 100% Accurate, rated A+ PRE OP DIAGNOSIS: Left Breast Abnormal MMG or Palpable Mass; Other Disorders of Breast PROCEDURE: Automated Stereotactic Biopsy Left Breast FINDINGS: Lesion is located in the lateral region, just at or below the level of the nipple on the 90 degree lateral view. There is a subglandular implant in place. I discussed the procedure with the patient today including risks, benefits and alternatives. Specifically discus...

A 46-year-old female had a previous biopsy that indicated positive malignant margins anteriorly on the right side of her neck. A 0.5 cm margin was drawn out and a 15 blade scalpel was used for full excision of an 8 cm lesion. Layered closure was performed after the removal. The specimen was sent for permanent histopathologic examination. What are the CPT® code(s) for this procedure? A. 11626 B. 11626, 12004-51 C. 11626, 12044-51 D. 11626, 13132-51, 13133 - ANSWER-C. 11626, 12044-51 A 30-...

Arthrex Questions And Answers With Verified Solutions Latest Updated 2024