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Endocrine Q1: Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating blood glucose levels? A) Insulin B) Cortisol C) Thyroxine D) Glucagon Answer: A) Insulin Elaboration: Insulin, produced by the pancreas, lowers blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into the body's cells. In diabetes, this regulation is impaired. Diabetes Type 1 & 2 Q2: A patient with Type 2 diabetes is prescribed Metformin. What is the primary action of this medication? A) Increases insulin p...

1. Suffixes, Prefixes, Antidotes, & Common Therapeutic Levels Question 1: What suffix is commonly associated with beta-blockers? A) -pril B) -olol C) -cillin D) -pine Answer: B) -olol Elaboration: Beta-blockers, such as metoprolol and atenolol, are often identified by the suffix -olol, indicating their action in blocking beta-adrenergic receptors. 2. Pain Management Drugs (NSAIDs, Opioid Analgesics) Question 2: Which of the following is a common side effect of NSAIDs? A) Sedation...

1. APGAR Q1: What does the "P" in the APGAR score stand for? A) Pulse B) Pressure C) Position D) Prolapse Answer: A) Pulse Elaboration: The APGAR score evaluates five criteria (Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration) to assess the health of a newborn at one and five minutes after birth. The "P" specifically refers to the heart rate (pulse). 2. Acronyms Q2: What does the acronym "LMP" stand for in obstetric terms? A) Last Menstrual Period B) Labor Management Pl...

Common Abbreviations & "DO NOT use list" Q1: What does the abbreviation "NPO" stand for? A) Nothing by mouth B) Nutrition provided orally C) No past orders D) Normal patient output Answer: A) Nothing by mouth Elaboration: NPO is a medical abbreviation meaning the patient should not take anything by mouth, often used before surgery or certain medical procedures. Priority Questions Q2: In a triage situation, which patient should the nurse assess first? A) A patient with a spraine...

Varcarolis Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing 5th Edition Fosbre Test Bank Chapter 01: Science and the Therapeutic Use of Self in Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing Varcarolis: Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing: A Communication Approach to Evidence-Based Care, 5e MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which outcome, focused on recovery, would be expected in the plan of care for a patient living in the community and diagnosed with serious and persistent mental illness? Within 3 months, the ...

AANP FNP certification (Questions and Answers) Latest Graded A+ - 2023/2024 AANP FNP certification Exam 2023 1. All diastolic murmurs III first time audible, IV first time thrill are pathological. Mur- murs Grades I-barely II-audible III- clearly au- dible. IV- first time thrill V-Steth edge VI-entire steth. EXAM 2. Fundal height 12 weeks Fundal Height 12 weeks above symphysis pubis. EXAM Fundus 16 weeks between symphysis pubis and umbilicus. Fundus at 20 weeks is at umbilicus. 2 c...

Questions - Correctional Counselor (CC1) Exam - CDCR Exam Questions And Answers General duties of a CC1? - ANS - Interview I/M's - Evaluate their progress in programs - Summarize reports from I/M files to assist in the classification of parole suitability, etc. When can an I/M be on placed on C status? (a.k.a. C/C, a.k.a. C over C) - ANS - When deemed a program failure per CCR Title 15, Section 3000 + Refusing to work without a justifiable reason - 2 serious RVR's - 1 s...

1. Therapeutic Communication Techniques Q1: Which of the following is an example of active listening in therapeutic communication? A) Nodding and maintaining eye contact B) Interrupting to clarify information C) Giving unsolicited advice D) Distracting the patient with small talk Answer: A) Nodding and maintaining eye contact Elaboration: Active listening involves fully concentrating on what the patient is saying, showing empathy through body language such as nodding and maintaining eye...

General Assessment Principles Q1: What is the primary purpose of performing a comprehensive health assessment? A) To diagnose diseases B) To establish a baseline for future assessments C) To prescribe medications D) To determine the patient's financial status Answer: B) To establish a baseline for future assessments Elaboration: A comprehensive health assessment helps to gather baseline data about the patient’s health status, which is essential for comparison in future assessments an...

1. General Knowledge of Blood Types Q1: Which blood type is considered the universal donor? A) A B) B C) AB D) O Answer: D) O Elaboration: Blood type O is known as the universal donor because it lacks A and B antigens, making it safe for transfusion to any blood type. Individuals with type O blood can donate to anyone, but they can only receive type O blood. 2. Blood Type Testing and Compatibility Q2: What is the primary purpose of the crossmatch test before a blood transfusion? A)...