Hardware asset management - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

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ITIL 4 Foundation Part Exam |Questions with 100% Correct Answers
  • ITIL 4 Foundation Part Exam |Questions with 100% Correct Answers

  • Exam (elaborations) • 15 pages • 2024
  • ) Which practice is responsible for moving components to live environments? A. Change control B. Release management C. IT asset management D. Deployment management - D. Correct. "The purpose of the deployment management practice is to move new or changed hardware, software, documentation, processes, or any other component to live environments." Ref 5.3.1 Which practice includes the classification and ownership of queries and requests from users? A. Service desk B. Incident management...
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Exam VMDR
  • Exam VMDR

  • Exam (elaborations) • 10 pages • 2024
  • Exam VMDR 1 If adequate data exists (for Qualys to properly categorize an asset’s hardware or OS), but they have yet to be added to the asset catalog, they will potentially be listed as __________ . Choose an answer:  Unknown  Unidentified  Unavailable  Uncertain 2 Which Qualys application, provides the Real-Time Threat Indicators (RTIs) used in the VMDR Prioritization Report? Choose an answer:  Patch Management  Asset Inventory  Threat Protection  Vulnera...
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WGU C836 Fundamentals of Information Security Test (2024) || With 100% Correct Answers
  • WGU C836 Fundamentals of Information Security Test (2024) || With 100% Correct Answers

  • Exam (elaborations) • 21 pages • 2024
  • Available in package deal
  • WGU C836 Fundamentals of Information Security Test (2024) || With 100% Correct Answers WGU C836 Fundamentals of Information Security Test (2024) || With 100% Correct Answers Define the confidentiality, integrity, availability *(CIA) triad*. - ANSWER - the core model of all of information security Differentiate *confidentiality*, *integrity*, and *availability*. - ANSWER - *Confidential* is allowing only those *authorized to access* the data requested. *Integrity* is keeping *data unalter...
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TSA Foundations of Information Technology Study Guide Rated A+
  • TSA Foundations of Information Technology Study Guide Rated A+

  • Exam (elaborations) • 26 pages • 2024
  • Available in package deal
  • TSA Foundations of Information Technology Study Guide Rated A+ Infrastructure The underlying framework or basic foundation for something. paradigm shift a fundamental change in approach or underlying assumptions. Information Technology the study, design, development, implementation, support, and management of computer-based information systems. Information Technology Infrastructure A combination of hardware and software installed on a network that allows employees of a business to be producti...
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Comptia Cloud Essentials Practice Questions and Answers | Graded A
  • Comptia Cloud Essentials Practice Questions and Answers | Graded A

  • Exam (elaborations) • 33 pages • 2024
  • Comptia Cloud Essentials Practice Questions and Answers | Graded A Benefits of using Digital Marketing - Correct Answer ️️ -Better Customer Engagement Real-time results, monitoring, and optimization Enhanced Analytics Campaign Automation and Integration Lower Costs Compaction - Correct Answer ️️ -Process of deleting expired data to make room for new data SaaS - Correct Answer ️️ -A software licensing and delivery model where applications are accessed over the internet IaaS...
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CTPRP Exam | 99 Questions and Answers with complete Solutions
  • CTPRP Exam | 99 Questions and Answers with complete Solutions

  • Exam (elaborations) • 17 pages • 2024
  • CTPRP Exam | 99 Questions and Answers with complete Solutions third party - ___ entities or persons that work on behalf of the organization but are not its employees, including consultants, contingent workers, clients, business partners, service providers, subcontractors, vendors, suppliers, affiliates and any other person or entity that accessess customer, company confidential/proprietary data and/or systems that interact with that data outsourcer - ___ the entity delegating a function t...
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CIPS Level 4 Module 1 fully solved rated A+ 2024/2025
  • CIPS Level 4 Module 1 fully solved rated A+ 2024/2025

  • Exam (elaborations) • 55 pages • 2024
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  • CIPS Level 4 Module 1The Purchasing process - correct answer 1. Define Specification. 2. Select Supplier 3. Contract Agreement 4. Ordering 5. Expediting 6. Evaluation Follow up Definition of Procurement & Supply - correct answer recognition of the fact that the purchasing function has a role in not just "buying inputs" but in "securing supply" Direct Costs - correct answer These are costs which can be identified directly with the production of a good or service; e.g. raw materi...
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CRISC Test Bank 2 Questions and Answers
  • CRISC Test Bank 2 Questions and Answers

  • Exam (elaborations) • 317 pages • 2024
  • CRISC Test Bank 2 Questions and Answers Q1 Which of the following is true for Single loss expectancy (SLE), Annual rate of occurrence (ARO), and Annual loss expectancy (ALE)? A. ALE= ARO/SLE B. ARO= SLE/ALE C. ARO= ALE*SLE D. ALE= ARO*SLE - Correct Answer ️️ -Correct Answerr: D Section: Volume A Explanation A quantitative risk assessment quantifies risk in terms of numbers such as dollar values. This involves gathering data and then entering it into standard formulas. The results...
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MHA 705 exam 2 questions and answers graded 2024
  • MHA 705 exam 2 questions and answers graded 2024

  • Exam (elaborations) • 10 pages • 2024
  • Available in package deal
  • Content and records management - Systems that enable scanning and indexing of paper documents and other content in digital form; aka enterprise (or electronic) content and records management (ECRM) Data quality - The reliability and effectiveness of data for its intended uses in operations, decision making, and planning Enterprise information (EIM) - Ensuring the value of information assets, requiring an organization wide perspective of information management functions; it calls for explic...
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CRISC Test Bank 2 Questions and Answers
  • CRISC Test Bank 2 Questions and Answers

  • Exam (elaborations) • 317 pages • 2024
  • CRISC Test Bank 2 Questions and Answers Q1 Which of the following is true for Single loss expectancy (SLE), Annual rate of occurrence (ARO), and Annual loss expectancy (ALE)? A. ALE= ARO/SLE B. ARO= SLE/ALE C. ARO= ALE*SLE D. ALE= ARO*SLE - Correct Answer ️️ -Correct Answerr: D Section: Volume A Explanation A quantitative risk assessment quantifies risk in terms of numbers such as dollar values. This involves gathering data and then entering it into standard formulas. The results...
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