Signs and symptoms of osa - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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WGU D027 PathoPharm Exam Questions with 100% Correct Answers
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PRNs for anxiety Correct Answer f*cking benzos baby 
- alprazolam, chlordiazepoxide, clonazepam, diazepam, lorazepam 
 
How are multi-factorial diseases affected by genetics? Correct Answer risk for a multifactorial trait or condition depends on how close you are to a family member with the trait or condition. (ex: if sibling has it=higher risk) 
 
Describe Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria Syndrome. Explain the signs and symptoms. How is it diagnosed and treated? Correct Answer -progressive genetic d...
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Respiratory Therapy - Lindsey Jones/Clinical Simulations 100% correct answers already graded A+
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Information Gathering - Emphysema: 
 
(Abnormal condition of the alveoli resulting destruction and loss of elasticity.) 
LEVEL I : Cyanosis, Barrel chest, increased A-P diameter, Accessory muscle use, Digital clubbing of the nail beds, Significant history of smoking and/or occupational exposure to smoke or other pulmonary irritant 
LEVEL II : Dyspnea, Wheezing breath sounds 
LEVEL III : Chest X-ray—flattened diaphragms, hyperlucency, diminished pulmonary vascular markings. 
CBC—polycythemia,...
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Chapter 40 pulmonology Exam Question Guide With Complete Accurate Answers.
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upper respiratory - correct answer composed of structures are from the nose to the larynx 
 
lower respiratory - correct answer consist of trachea, bronchial tubes and the lungs 
 
nostrils - correct answer nares 
 
what separates the nares - correct answer The nasal septum 
 
small hairs - correct answer ...
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AACN PCCN Practice Test ALL SOLUTION 2023/24 EDITION GUARANTEED GRADE A+
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who is at risk for MDRO infection 
patients with severe disease, including compromised host defenses from underlying medical conditions, recent surgery, or indwelling medical devices (ex: foleys or ET tubes) 
what are classic signs of cardiac tamponade? 
hypotension, narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia with weak, thready pulse, and tachypnea 
what arrhythmia is mitral valve insufficiency associated with? 
afib 
what defines oliguira? 
less than 500 ml of output per day 
what does renal failure...
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APEA EXAM 220+ QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS BY EXPERT
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APEA EXAM 220+ QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS BY EXPERT 
 
What medications are used in PCOS? - ANSWER o Treatment: 
o Low dose birth control pills will suppress ovaries 
o Spironolactone will decrease & control hirsutism 
o If pt denies birth control pills can use medroxyprogesterone (Provera) 5-10 mg for 10-14 days 
repeat q 1-2 months to induce menses 
What are PCOS patients at increased risk for? - ANSWER CHD, type 2 diabetes, metabolic 
syndrome, cancer of breast and endometrium, central...
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AACN PCCN Practice Test
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who is at risk for MDRO infection - Answer- patients with severe disease, including compromised host defenses from underlying medical conditions, recent surgery, or indwelling medical devices (ex: foleys or ET tubes) 
 
what are classic signs of cardiac tamponade? - Answer- hypotension, narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia with weak, thready pulse, and tachypnea 
 
what arrhythmia is mitral valve insufficiency associated with? - Answer- afib 
 
what defines oliguira? - Answer- less than 500 ml ...
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BRPT PRACTICE EXAM FOR LICENSEE | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS (VERIFIED) | LATEST UPDATE | GRADED A+
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BRPT PRACTICE EXAM FOR LICENSEE | 
QUESTIONS & ANSWERS (VERIFIED) | 
LATEST UPDATE | GRADED A+ 
What epoch view should you view the EEG if you suspect seizure activity? 
Correct Answer: 10sec/page 
What happens to the chin EMG in a patient that has bruxism? 
Correct Answer: periodic bursts of high amplitude 
What is delayed sleep phase syndrome? 
Correct Answer: sleep onset usually after 2 a.m. 
What is not a sign of advanced sleep phase syndrome? 
Correct Answer: ends to occur in younger ...
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CMN 568, CHAPTER 9 PULMONARY DISORDERS AND PLEURAL DISEASE TEST WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS
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virchows triad 
likelihood of getting a PE increases when you have hypercoagulability, venous statis, and injury to vessel wall 
 
 
 
most common cause of idiopathic hypercoagulability 
factor 5 leiden 
 
 
 
most common signs of PE 
difficult to nail down signs and symptoms but dyspnea, chest pain on inspiration, and tachypnea are most common 
 
 
 
labs elevated in PE 
d-dimer, troponin T, troponin I, and BNP usually elevated 
 
 
 
the most common radiograph for PE in north america 
helical ...
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NUR 163 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPDATED 2023/2024 GRADED 100%
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NUR 163 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS UPDATED 2023/2024 GRADED 100%. Chronic fatigue syndrome have lack of energy, we want them to still be able to function? 
Frequent breaks, balance, work and rest. 
What might help elderly patient sleep? Warm milk, 
bathroom before bed, expose them to sunlight daily, bath (may not be warm) 
Elderly should not nap throughout the day, but early in the afternoon for about 30 
minutes When doing ROM assess pain first 
Vaginal dryness and pain during intercourse...
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HESI RN FUNDAMENTALS EXAM MULTIPLE CHOICES
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HESI RN FUNDAMENTALS EXAM 
 MULTIPLE CHOICES 
 RN STORE 
1. The nurse teaching a health awareness class identifies which situation as being the 
highest risk factor for the development of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? 
Pregnancy 
2. A client on hospice care is receiving palliative treatment. A palliative approach 
involves planning measures to: 
1. Restore the client's health 
2. Remove and dispose of the patch in an appropriate receptacle. 
3.Have the family return the patch to the pha...
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