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NASM Physique and Bodybuilding Coach Exam with Right Answers
Which amino acid supplement has the greatest direct effect on muscle protein synthesis? - Leucine 
 
This supplement which is common during peak week may result in GI distress when used in very large doses- Vitamin C 
 
What effect does creatine have on the kidney function? - No effect 
 
Which supplement is believed to help increase the transport of fatty acids into the mitochondria, but may have little actual effect on body fat loss? - Carnosine 
 
What is the standard dose for creatine i...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 15 pages •
Which amino acid supplement has the greatest direct effect on muscle protein synthesis? - Leucine 
 
This supplement which is common during peak week may result in GI distress when used in very large doses- Vitamin C 
 
What effect does creatine have on the kidney function? - No effect 
 
Which supplement is believed to help increase the transport of fatty acids into the mitochondria, but may have little actual effect on body fat loss? - Carnosine 
 
What is the standard dose for creatine i...
NASM Physique and Bodybuilding Coach Exam with Correct Answers
If a Physique Coach programs Phase 5 Power Training for a client, how long on average will they stay in this phase of training? 
Select one: 
A. 1 week 
B. 8 to 10 weeks 
C. A physique client should never use Phase 5 training. 
D. 2 to 6 weeks - D 
 
Physique clients often get blood work done to ensure that their overall health is maintained during the strenuous periods of their season. While it is outside the scope of practice for the Physique Coach to read and review blood work, what marker c...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 38 pages •
If a Physique Coach programs Phase 5 Power Training for a client, how long on average will they stay in this phase of training? 
Select one: 
A. 1 week 
B. 8 to 10 weeks 
C. A physique client should never use Phase 5 training. 
D. 2 to 6 weeks - D 
 
Physique clients often get blood work done to ensure that their overall health is maintained during the strenuous periods of their season. While it is outside the scope of practice for the Physique Coach to read and review blood work, what marker c...
SCIP-R Exam with 100% Correct Answers
SCIP-R stands for - Strategies for Crisis Intervention and Prevention - Revised 
 
Who developed and approved the SCIP-R curriculum? - NYS OPWDD (New York State Office for People with Developmental Disabilities) 
 
Beliefs are - Opinions, views, conclusions 
- Are internal 
 
Values are - Ideas and things of importance to you 
 
Attitudes are - Thoughts which are based on knowledge and experiences 
 
T/F: Regardless of the severity of a disability, all persons can learn and grow - True 
 
...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 4 pages •
SCIP-R stands for - Strategies for Crisis Intervention and Prevention - Revised 
 
Who developed and approved the SCIP-R curriculum? - NYS OPWDD (New York State Office for People with Developmental Disabilities) 
 
Beliefs are - Opinions, views, conclusions 
- Are internal 
 
Values are - Ideas and things of importance to you 
 
Attitudes are - Thoughts which are based on knowledge and experiences 
 
T/F: Regardless of the severity of a disability, all persons can learn and grow - True 
 
...
SCIP-R Practice Test with Verified Answers
If a person is crying randomly and/or is unable to calm down, what should we consider first? - Pain or illness 
 
Define escape as a reason for behavior. - behavior can be negatively reinforced by the escape or avoidance of a demand, task, or activity. 
 
Define attention as a reason for behavior. - a person can engage in a behavior to get another person to attend to or spend time with them. 
 
Define tangible as a reason for behavior. - want or access to an item, service, food, or activity....
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 5 pages •
If a person is crying randomly and/or is unable to calm down, what should we consider first? - Pain or illness 
 
Define escape as a reason for behavior. - behavior can be negatively reinforced by the escape or avoidance of a demand, task, or activity. 
 
Define attention as a reason for behavior. - a person can engage in a behavior to get another person to attend to or spend time with them. 
 
Define tangible as a reason for behavior. - want or access to an item, service, food, or activity....
SCIP Exam with Correct Answers
Behavior Support - Defined by what the individual needs. Minimizes the use of punishers. The individual is in control. The focus is more on the teaching of functional skills that will eliminate the need for negative behavior. 
 
Behavior Control - Staff is in control. The focus is to decrease the frequency of undesired behavior through punishment or cost response. 
 
Escape - Problem behavior can be negatively reinforced by the escape or avoiding a demand activity. 
 
Attention - Engaging in...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 4 pages •
Behavior Support - Defined by what the individual needs. Minimizes the use of punishers. The individual is in control. The focus is more on the teaching of functional skills that will eliminate the need for negative behavior. 
 
Behavior Control - Staff is in control. The focus is to decrease the frequency of undesired behavior through punishment or cost response. 
 
Escape - Problem behavior can be negatively reinforced by the escape or avoiding a demand activity. 
 
Attention - Engaging in...
SCIP Exam with Correct Solutions
What is SCIP - Strategies for crisis intervention and prevention is a system in which staff are taught positive ways to assist the individuals we support with challenging behavior 
 
3 main goals of SCIP - Know the individual, be proactive, create a supportive and functional environment 
 
Our mission is to provide services that facilitate an _________ and __________ life experience for individuals with developmental disabilities - Independent and productive 
 
Beliefs - Opinions, views, con...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 3 pages •
What is SCIP - Strategies for crisis intervention and prevention is a system in which staff are taught positive ways to assist the individuals we support with challenging behavior 
 
3 main goals of SCIP - Know the individual, be proactive, create a supportive and functional environment 
 
Our mission is to provide services that facilitate an _________ and __________ life experience for individuals with developmental disabilities - Independent and productive 
 
Beliefs - Opinions, views, con...
NSG 6430 Exam with Correct Answers Rated A+
According to Naomi, all stages of adolescent psychosocial development revolve around issues with independence/dependence, body image concerns, peer group involvement, and identity development. During which stage are eating disorders most likely to surface? - middle adolescence (14 to 16) 
 
Jane is a thirty-two-year-old married woman with three children. She comes in for 
information on using the copper T intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. Which of the following would be a contraindic...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 6 pages •
According to Naomi, all stages of adolescent psychosocial development revolve around issues with independence/dependence, body image concerns, peer group involvement, and identity development. During which stage are eating disorders most likely to surface? - middle adolescence (14 to 16) 
 
Jane is a thirty-two-year-old married woman with three children. She comes in for 
information on using the copper T intrauterine device (IUD) for contraception. Which of the following would be a contraindic...
NSG 6430 Review Questions with 100% Correct Answers
The nurse practitioner understands that HPV types _____and ____are most often associated with cervical and Anogenital cancer. - 16 and 18 
 
Jenna was evaluated and diagnosed with condyloma Acuminatum. Treatment options for Jenna will include all of the following except: - topical acyclovir 
 
Which of the following is a treatment option for a 30-year old woman with PID and a history of severe hive-form reaction when taking a penicillin or cephalosporin? - clindamycin with azithromycin 
 
The...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 13 pages •
The nurse practitioner understands that HPV types _____and ____are most often associated with cervical and Anogenital cancer. - 16 and 18 
 
Jenna was evaluated and diagnosed with condyloma Acuminatum. Treatment options for Jenna will include all of the following except: - topical acyclovir 
 
Which of the following is a treatment option for a 30-year old woman with PID and a history of severe hive-form reaction when taking a penicillin or cephalosporin? - clindamycin with azithromycin 
 
The...
NSG 6430 Exam Questions with Verified Answers
How does nutrition effect bone mass? - Adequate consumption of calcium and vitamin D is important for optimal accrual of bone mass. It appears that calcium intakes of between 1,200 and 1,800 mg per day result in maximal calcium absorption for children between 9 and 18 years of age. 
 
How does exercise effect bone mass? - Weight-bearing physical activity during pre- and early puberty has been shown to improve bone strength, but results have been less promising for the effects of exercise on po...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 26 pages •
How does nutrition effect bone mass? - Adequate consumption of calcium and vitamin D is important for optimal accrual of bone mass. It appears that calcium intakes of between 1,200 and 1,800 mg per day result in maximal calcium absorption for children between 9 and 18 years of age. 
 
How does exercise effect bone mass? - Weight-bearing physical activity during pre- and early puberty has been shown to improve bone strength, but results have been less promising for the effects of exercise on po...
NSG 6430 Final Test Correctly Answered
The nurse practitioner may include any of the following methods when managing sexual arousal disorders in women except: - Treatments that decrease blood flow to the genital tissues. 
 
A patient has been diagnosed with secondary dysmenorrhea. Which of the following statements is true regarding the diagnosis? - An underlying pathology causing pain symptoms during menstrual flow. 
 
The nurse practitioner is counseling a patient about midlife health issues in women and informs the patient that t...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 5 pages •
The nurse practitioner may include any of the following methods when managing sexual arousal disorders in women except: - Treatments that decrease blood flow to the genital tissues. 
 
A patient has been diagnosed with secondary dysmenorrhea. Which of the following statements is true regarding the diagnosis? - An underlying pathology causing pain symptoms during menstrual flow. 
 
The nurse practitioner is counseling a patient about midlife health issues in women and informs the patient that t...
VMO OSFM Study Questions with Solutions
Health Administration Midterm Exam with Solutions