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NCLEX RN ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS and Answers 2023 with explanation. A++ GUARANTEED
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NCLEX RN ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS and Answers 2023 with explanation. A++ GUARANTEED
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NCLEX RN ACTUAL EXAMQUESTIONS and Answers 2023 with
explanation. A++ GUARANTEED
,The nurse receives a client from the post anesthesia care unit following a left femoral-popliteal bypass
graft procedure. Which of the following assessments requires immediate notification of the health care
provider?
• Left foot is cool to the touch
• Absent lef t pedal pulse using Doppler analysis
• Inability to palpate the left pedal pulse
• Acute pain in the left lower leg
Although the inability to palpate the left pedal pulse, a cool extremity, and increased pain in the left
lower leg are important findings, they all require additional nursing assessment prior to contacting the
health care provider. In clients without palpable pedal pulses, the next step in the assessment is to
perform a Doppler analysis. The inability to locate the left pedal pulse using the Doppler analysis
requires immediately notifying the health care provider.
Ref # 1028
There's a new medication order that reads: "administer 1 gtt ciprofloxacin solution OD Q 4 h" What
action should the nurse take?
Call the prescriber to clarify and rewrite the order
Abbreviations, symbols and dose designations can be misinterpreted and lead to medication errors. "OD"
can mean "right eye" (oculus dexter) or "once daily"; it should never be used when communicating
medical information. The abbreviation "Q" should be written out as "every." Although "gtt" is not on the
official "Do Not Use List", it's best to use "drop" instead. Asking other nurses to interpret an order is a
potentially dangerous "workaround." The nurse should call the health care provider who prescribed the
medication and clarify the order.
Ref # 1440
Which individual is at greatest risk for the development of hypertension?
45 year−old African−American attorney
The incidence of hypertension is greater among African−Americans than other groups in the United
States. The incidence among the Hispanic population is rising.
Ref # 2446
A woman, who delivered five days ago and who had been diagnosed with pregnancy induced
hypertension (PIH), calls a hospital triage nurse hotline to ask for advice. She states, "I have had the
worst headache for the past two days. It pounds and by the middle of the afternoon everything I look at
looks wavy.
Nothing I have taken helps." What should the nurse do next?
Ask the client to stay on the line, get the address, and send an ambulance to the home
,The woman is at risk for seizure activity. The ambulance needs to bring the woman to the hospital for
evaluation and treatment. For at−risk clients, PIH may progress to preeclampsia and eclampsia prior to,
during, or after delivery; this may occur up to 10 days after delivery.
Ref # 2065
A client expresses anger when a call light is not answered within five minutes. The client demanded a
blanket. How should the nurse respond?
"I see this is frustrating for you. I have a few minutes so let's talk."
This is the best response because it gives credence to the client's feelings and then concerns. To say "let's
talk" and ask a why question is not a therapeutic approach because it does not acknowledge or validate
the client's feelings. To apologize and not notice the client's feelings is inappropriate. To say it could
have waited a few minutes is rude and non−accepting of the client's verbalized needs.
Ref # 2134
The client is admitted to an ambulatory surgery center and undergoes a right inguinal orchiectomy.
Which option is the priority before the client can be discharged to home
Post−operative pain is managed
An orchiectomy is the surgical removal of one or both testicles. It is usually performed to treat cancer
(testicular, prostate or cancer of the male breast), but it may also be performed to prevent cancer (with an
undescended testicle.) Due to the location of the incision, pain management is the priority. Most men
will be able to eat regularly when they get home; they should at least tolerate liquids before discharge.
It's important that the client is able to get up and walk with assistance, but this is not the priority.
Psychological counseling may be needed as part of long−term aftercare, but this is not an immediate
priority.
Ref # 1524
A nurse is teaching a group of adults about modifiable cardiac risk factors. Which of the following
should the nurse focus on first?
Smoking cessation
Smoking cessation is the priority for clients at risk for cardiac disease. Smoking's effects result in
reduction of cell oxygenation and constriction of the blood vessels. All of the other factors should be
addressed at some point in time.
Ref # 1721
The clinic nurse is assisting with medical billing. The nurse uses the DRG (Diagnosis Related Group)
manual for which purpose?
, Determine reimbursement for a medical diagnosis
DRGs are the basis of prospective payment plans for reimbursement for Medicare clients. Other
insurance companies often use it as a standard for determining payment. KEYWORDS DRG diagnosis
related group
reimbursement
Ref # 1328
A nurse is planning care for a 2 year-old hospitalized child. Which issue will produce the most stress at
this age? Separation anxiety While a toddler will experience all of the stresses, separation from parents is
the major stressor. Separation anxiety peaks in the toddler years.
Ref # 2319
The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for several clients. Which of the laboratory result indicates
a client with partly compensated metabolic acidosis? PaCO2 30 mm Hg
Metabolic acidosis can be caused by many conditions, including renal failure, shock, severe diarrhea,
dehydration, diabetic acidosis, and salicylate poisoning. With metabolic acidosis, you should expect a
low pH (less than 7.35) and a low HCO3 (less than 22 mEq/L.) Compensation means the body is trying
to get the pH back in balance; therefore, a pure metabolic acidosis should elicit a compensatory decrease
in PaCO3 (normal is 35-45 mm Hg.) The hemoglobin is within normal limits (WNL) for both males and
females. The chloride and sodium results are also WNL.
Ref # 2391
A client with a diagnosis of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has died. Which type
of precautions is appropriate to use when performing postmortem care? Contact precautionsThe resistant
bacteria remain alive for up to three days after the client dies. Therefore, contact precautions must still be
used. The body should also be labeled as MRSA−contaminated so that the funeral home staff can protect
themselves as well. Gown and gloves are required.
Ref # 1436
A client has a chest tube inserted immediately after surgery for a left lower lobectomy. During the
repositioning of the client during the first postop check, the nurse notices 75 mL of a dark, red fluid
flowing into the collection chamber of the chest drain system. What is the appropriate nursing action?
Continue to monitor the rate of drainage It is not unusual for blood to collect in the chest and be released
into the chest drain when the client changes position this soon after surgery. The dark color of the blood
indicates it is not active bleeding inside of the chest. Sanguinous drainage should be expected within the
initial 24 hours postop, progressing to serosanguinous and then to a serous type. If the drainage exceeds
100 mL/hr, the nurse should call the surgeon.
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