Summary APM - PFQ (PFQ) Practice Tests/ APM PFQ Exam Questions & Answers Test Bank_2023.
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APM Project Fundamentals Qualification
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Passing the APM Project Fundamentals Qualification
APM - PFQ (PFQ) Practice Tests/ APM PFQ Exam Questions & Answers Test Bank_2023.
Which of the following is not a stage in an issue resolution process?
a. Share the issue with stakeholders.
b. Track the issue to closure. c. Escalate to the sponsor.
d. Apply change control.
Which of th...
apm project fundamentals qualification practice tests 2023
apm pfq pfq practice tests amp test 2023
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APM - PFQ (PFQ) Practice Tests/ APM PFQ Exam
Questions & Answers Test Bank_2023 .
Which of the following is not a stage in an issue resolution process? a. Share the issue with stakeholders.
b. Track the issue to closure. c. Escalate to the sponsor. d. Apply change control.
ANS - A
Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team? 1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members 2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members 3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area 4) Lack of accountability of team members
a. 1, 2 & 3 b. 1, 2 & 4 c. 1, 3 & 4 d. 2, 3 & 4
ANS - C
Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?
a. Recommendation. b. Justification. c. Planning. d. Continuous improvement
ANS - A
The purpose of quality assurance is to: a. provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards. b. determine a set of procedures and standards for project management. c. inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes. d. define the scope and specifics of a project's deliverables
ANS - A
A project manager might use a PESTLE analysis in order to: a. mitigate all possible risks to the project. b. identify and mitigate factors that may affect the project. c. control technological change during the project. d. consider team social roles in early stages of the project
ANS - B Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development a. 3 and 4 only b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 2 only d. 2, 3 and 4
ANS - D
Which of the following is the responsibility of a project manager? a. Ensuring a project is aligned to the organisation's strategy. b. Focusing on project benefits and aligning priorities. c. Achieving the project's success criteria. d. Improving process, tools and techniques used in a project
ANS - C
To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needs to consider which type of analysis? a. Budget. b. Stakeholder. c. Resource. d. Schedule
ANS - B
Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor? a. Creating a project cost breakdown structure. b. Authoring the project management plan. c. Creating a project work breakdown structure. d. Owning the project business case.
ANS - D
Portfolio management includes prioritising: a. projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation's strategic objectives. b. projects with exceptionally high returns on investment. c. projects and programmes over business as usual. d. projects which maximise change over those which maximise investment
ANS - A
Which of the following actions would not help a team leader influence the performance of their team? a. Creating an exclusive environment. b. Providing clear roles and responsibilities. c. Promoting openness and honesty. d. Developing a trusting relationship.
ANS - A One difference between a project and business as usual is: a. projects achieve specified benefits but business as usual has only vague benefits. b. projects drive change whereas business as usual continues existing activities. c. projects have tightly controlled budgets whereas business as usual does not. d. projects have unclear deadlines but business as usual has multiple milestones
ANS - B
The purpose of project progress reporting is to: a. ensure a simpler critical path. b. enable the tracking of project deliverables. c. ensure stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables. d. provide an increased total float.
ANS - B
Which of the following is the purpose of an estimating funnel? a. Keeping resource usage to a minimum to help reduce costs. b. Supporting the production of comparative estimates. c. Identifying where costs can be minimised when preparing a budget. d. Representing increasing levels of estimating accuracy achieved through the life cycle
ANS - D
One advantage of virtual communications is: a. that nonverbal signals can have an impact on discussions. b. it's easy to detect signs of conflict within the project team. c. access to a wider resource pool for the project. d. that the project team will always be co-located.
ANS - C
Which technique could be used by a project manager when resources are limited? a. Resource aggregation. b. Resource estimation. c. Resource levelling. d. Resource expansion
ANS - C
The main aim of quality management is to: a. prepare a high-quality management plan. b. ensure that deliverables meet appropriate standards. c. validate the use of consistent standards. d. determine whether to accept change requests.
ANS - B
Which of the following is a purpose of issue management? a. To stop issues occurring within the project. b. To address and resolve the issues that occur. c. To address and resolve uncertainty. d. To reschedule activities to reduce costs
ANS - B
Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the: a. components of each product. b. budget of each product. c. benefits of each product. d. risks of each product.
ANS - A
The definition of benefits management includes which key activities? a. Planning, analysis and integration of project benefits. b. Justification, validation and acceptance of project benefits. c. Identification, tracking and realisation of project benefits. d. Realisation, acceptance and integration of project benefits
ANS - C
Which of the following statements about scheduling is false? a. Defines the sequence of activities. b. Considers work calendars and time contingency. c. Provides a baseline for safety considerations. d. Quantifies the required resources.
ANS - C
Which of the following defines the term 'deployment baseline'? a. The starting point for creating a resource histogram. b. The basis for creating an organisational breakdown structure. c. The starting point for the monitoring of project risks. d. The basis for progress monitoring.
ANS - D
Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process? a. Evaluation. b. Identification. c. Registration. d. Justification.
ANS - B
Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by: a. identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest. b. ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables. c. justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders. d. providing information to all stakeholders.
ANS - A
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