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Pharmacology 2042 Final EAQ Exam Review: Top-Tier Questions with Detailed Solutions - Guaranteed to Boost Your Academic Performance for Top Results24,38 €
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Pharmacology 2042 Final EAQ Exam Review:
Top-Tier Questions with Detailed Solutions -
Guaranteed to Boost Your Academic
Performance for Top Results!
The healthcare provider avoids prescribing diltiazem to a patient with a history of heart
failure. What might be the reason for this action?
a) Diltiazem increases the mortality rate.
b) Diltiazem has negative inotropic properties.
c) Diltiazem increases the sympathetic activity.
d) Diltiazem reduces only afterload of the heart. - CORRECT ANS- -b) Diltiazem has
negative inotropic properties.
Rationale:
Diltiazem is a nondihydropyridine calcium channel blocker with negative inotropic
properties, which can aggravate heart failure. Diltiazem may not increase the risk of
mortality; it only aggravates the patient's condition. Increased sympathetic activity is a
pathophysiologic cause of heart failure. Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers such as
nifedipine, amlodipine, and nicardipine are used to reduce afterload in patients with heart
failure.
Which statement by a patient about the use of tamsulosin (Flomax) indicates a need for
further teaching?
a) "I will lie down if I become lightheaded."
b) "I should not drink alcohol while taking this drug."
c) "I will stop taking this medication if I develop a headache."
,d) "I will take this medication within 30 minutes after eating." - CORRECT ANS- -c) "I will
stop taking this medication if I develop a headache."
Rationale:
The patient should not stop taking tamsulosin if headache occurs. Headache tends to be
self-limiting, and if the headache persists, the patient should be instructed to contact the
healthcare provider. Tamsulosin should be taken 30 minutes after eating. Alcohol interacts
with tamsulosin and should be avoided while taking this drug. A patient who becomes
lightheaded while taking tamsulosin should be instructed to lie down.
What is the mechanism of action of glucagon-like peptide-1 agonists?
a) Increase gastric emptying
b) Convert amino acids to glucose
c) Break down stored glycogen to glucose
d) Suppress glucagon secretion from the liver - CORRECT ANS- -d) Suppress glucagon
secretion from the liver
Rationale:
Glucagon-like peptide-1 agonists mimic the actions of incretin for self-regulating glycemic
control, resulting in an increase in serum insulin and a reduction in glucose
concentrations. Glucagon aids in converting amino acids to glucose (gluconeogenesis) and
breaks down stored glycogen to glucose.
Which laboratory value does the nurse monitor in a patient taking glimepiride (Amaryl) for
blood sugar control?
Blood dyscrasias may be seen in patients taking glimepiride, so it is important to monitor
CBC levels. Clinical manifestations include sore throat, fever, purpura, jaundice, or
excessive and progressively increasing weakness. Glimepiride does not affect
sedimentation rate, creatinine levels, or triglyceride levels.
Which premedication assessment is essential before initiating finasteride (Proscar)
therapy?
a) sperm count
b) glucose tolerance
c) CBC
d) prostate specific antigen level - CORRECT ANS- -d) prostate specific antigen level
rationale:
A baseline prostate-specific antigen level is needed. Prostate-specific antigen level should
decrease with finasteride; any sustained elevation suggests prostate cancer or
nonadherence with therapy. Glucose tolerance, CBC values, and sperm count are
unaffected by finasteride.
A patient who is receiving antidiabetic treatment reports anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
and, on examination, is found to have an enlarged liver and spleen on examination. Which
antidiabetic drug would the nurse anticipate will be changed?
a) Miglitol (Glyset)
b) Nateglinide (Starlix)
c) Glipizide (Glucotrol)
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