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NURS 6645 FINAL Exam (Latest 2022/2023, 100 Q & A)
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NRNP 6645 Final Exam(Latest- 2022/2023, 100 Q &
A) / NRNP 6645N
Final Exam / NRNP6645
Final Exam LATEST VERSIONNRNP 6645 Final Exam
100% Verified QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
COMPLETE AND BEST DOCUMENT FOR EXAM PREPARATION lOMoAR cPSD| 10935195
.A relapse prevention plan includes identifying triggers to the patient’s gambling and a A
variety of coping strategies to avoid or successfully manage triggers without reverting to gambling.
BA relapse prevention plan should be completed during the initial stage of
treatment. .
C D
toThe main focus of a relapse prevention plan is on changing behaviors. .
The main focus of a relapse prevention plan is on cognitive or thought processes
.decrease the desire to gamble
AThe existential approach has a specific set of
techniques used. .
BThe existential relies on the patient to drive the
therapeutic direction. .
CThe existential therapist presents broad existential themes but avoids in- depth
questioning.
.
DThe existential psychotherapist is free to draw on techniques from other
psychotherapeutic models .
.
Shame drives a person to engage in treatment while guilt drives a person to avoid treatment. .
Shame causes a person to perceive self as a failure and guilt causes avoidance of treatment. .
Guilt causes a person to perceive himself as a loser and shame drives a person to avoid treatment. .
Shame drives avoidance from treatment, Guilt often motivates a person to seek treatment.
.NRNP 6645 Final Exam
The advanced practice psychiatric nurse encourages a patient with gambling addiction to develop a relapse prevention plan. Which of the following is true about a relapse prevention plan?
Which of the following is consistent with the psychotherapeutic approach used by existential
psychotherapists?
According to Dearing, Stuewig, and Tangney (2005), understanding the difference between guilt and
shame and its impact on an individual’s motivation is critical to hope and the recovery process. Which of the following is true regarding guilt and shame?
Which of the following is not consistent with what is known about relapse? ARelapse indicates treatment
failure. .
BRelapse is a persistent risk in
addiction. .
CRelapse is a characteristic of all
chronic medical diseases. .
DRelapse is the return to substance use or addictive behaviors after periods
. of abstinence.
IPT is not an appropriate model for treating depression in older adults. .
This is a common IPT issue with older adults during the initial sessions. .
The advanced practice psychiatric nurse should consider using a standardized scale to quantify the depression and use this to educate the patient and the family. .
B and C .
A Stage
.
B Stage
.
C Stage
.
D Stage1
2
3
. 4lOMoAR cPSD| 10935195
A Freedom
.
B Responsibili
. ty
C Authenticity
.
D Meaning
.The advanced practice psychiatric nurse proficient in Interpersonal Psychotherapy (IPT) is working with
an older adult who does not realize she has depression. Which of the following is true?
The patient in Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) complains the skills being taught in DBT don’t
work, struggles with keeping diary cards, and doing assigned homework. This is consistent with which stage of treatment within the DBT model?
The existential concept of an openness, readiness, and flexibility to grow and change, which necessitates
a
capacity to choose alternatives, and shape one’s own destiny as authors of
creating their own world is which of the following?
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