,1. Question: A 72-year-old woman with Type 2 Diabetes
is experiencing polyuria and polydipsia. Her HgbA1c is
8.5%. Which medication adjustment is most suitable?
- A) Increase Metformin
- B) Add a SGLT2 inhibitor
- C) Start Basal Insulin
- D) Add a DPP-4 inhibitor
Answer: B) Add a SGLT2 inhibitor
Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors help reduce blood glucose
by causing glucose excretion in the urine and also benefit
heart and kidney function, which is beneficial for older
adults.
2. Question: When prescribing antihypertensive
medication for a frail elderly patient, which class is preferred
due to minimal risk of orthostatic hypotension?
- A) Thiazide diuretics
- B) Beta-blockers
- C) ACE inhibitors
- D) Calcium channel blockers
Answer: D) Calcium channel blockers
Rationale: Calcium channel blockers generally have a
lower risk of causing orthostatic hypotension in older adults
compared to some other classes.
Answer: C) Hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale: Thiazide diuretics are often recommended
as initial therapy in African American patients due to better
response rates compared to ACE inhibitors.
4. Question: In elderly patients with chronic kidney
disease and Stage 2 hypertension, the most appropriate
antihypertensive to initiate is:
- A) ACE inhibitor
- B) Calcium Channel Blocker
- C) Beta-blocker
- D) Alpha-blocker
Answer: A) ACE inhibitor
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can help protect kidney
function in patients with chronic kidney disease.
5. Question: A pregnant patient with depression is
considered for medication management. Which
antidepressant is generally considered safest in pregnancy?
- A) Paroxetine
- B) Sertraline
- C) Fluoxetine
- D) Citalopram
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