Chamberlain College of Nursing NR283 Test
Question Bank (Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, Final
Exam, 300 Q/A): Pathophysiology | 100 %
Verified Answers with rationales , Already
Graded A+ 2023/2024 latest guaranteed pass[3
in 1]
1. Which of the following is the primary function of the kidneys i...
Chamberlain College of Nursing NR283 Test
Question Bank (Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, Final
Exam, 300 Q/A): Pathophysiology | 100 %
Verified Answers with rationales , Already
Graded A+ 2023/2024 latest guaranteed pass[3
in 1]
1. Which of the following is the primary function of the kidneys in relation to
acid-base balance? . a) Secretion of bicarbonate
b) Secretion of hydrogen ions
c) Reabsorption of hydrogen ions
d) Production of ammonia Answer: b) Secretion of hydrogen ions
Rationale: The kidneys play a key role in maintaining acid-base balance by secreting hydrogen
ions (H⁺) into the urine and reabsorbing bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) into the bloodstream, which
helps regulate pH.
2. Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to occur with a
condition of hyperaldosteronism?
a) Hypokalemia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypocalcemia
d) Hypernatremia
Answer: a) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hyperaldosteronism results in excess aldosterone production, which increases
sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and promotes potassium excretion. This leads to
hypokalemia (low potassium levels).
3. A nurse is assessing a patient with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is
the most common cause of this condition?
a) Gallstones
b) Alcohol abuse
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c) Hypertension
d) Peptic ulcers
Answer: b) Alcohol abuse
Rationale: Alcohol abuse is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis, although gallstones
can also be a significant cause. Alcohol can trigger pancreatic enzyme activation and
inflammation, leading to acute pancreatitis.
4. In a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), what would
be expected to be seen on arterial blood gas analysis?
a) Respiratory alkalosis
b) Respiratory acidosis
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Metabolic acidosis
Answer: b) Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: COPD leads to impaired gas exchange and hypoventilation, causing carbon dioxide
(CO₂) retention, which results in respiratory acidosis. This condition lowers blood pH and
increases CO₂ levels.
5. A patient presents with sudden onset of chest pain, shortness of breath, and
diaphoresis. The nurse suspects a myocardial infarction. Which of the following
biomarkers would most likely be elevated in this condition?
a) Creatine kinase (CK)
b) Troponin I
c) Prothrombin time (PT)
d) Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Answer: b) Troponin I
Rationale: Troponin I is a cardiac enzyme released when myocardial injury occurs. It is the most
sensitive and specific biomarker for detecting a myocardial infarction.
6. Which of the following conditions is associated with the presence of an "S"
and "Q" wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG)?
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a) Acute myocardial infarction
b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Atrial fibrillation
d) Ventricular arrhythmias
Answer: b) Pulmonary embolism
Rationale: The "S" and "Q" waves on an ECG are indicative of right heart strain, which is
commonly seen in pulmonary embolism. This leads to changes in the electrical activity of the
heart.
7. Which of the following is the primary risk factor for the development of type 2
diabetes mellitus?
a) Physical inactivity
b) High cholesterol
c) Genetic predisposition
d) Age over 60
Answer: a) Physical inactivity
Rationale: Physical inactivity and obesity are the primary risk factors for type 2 diabetes.
Sedentary lifestyles contribute to insulin resistance, which is the hallmark of type 2 diabetes.
8. A patient with cirrhosis of the liver develops ascites. Which of the following is
the most likely cause of the ascites in this patient?
a) Decreased albumin production
b) Increased bile production
c) Increased aldosterone secretion
d) Portal hypertension
Answer: d) Portal hypertension
Rationale: Ascites in cirrhosis is primarily caused by portal hypertension, which increases
pressure in the veins of the liver and abdomen. This causes fluid to leak into the peritoneal
cavity. Decreased albumin and increased aldosterone also contribute to the condition but are
secondary factors.
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9. A patient presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Diabetic ketoacidosis
b) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Addison’s disease
Answer: b) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Rationale: The classic triad of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is commonly seen in type 1
diabetes mellitus due to the body’s inability to regulate blood glucose levels, leading to
hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis.
10. Which of the following is the hallmark of anaphylactic shock?
a) Bradycardia and hypotension
b) Wheezing and stridor
c) Pulmonary edema and cyanosis
d) Decreased heart rate and tachypnea
Answer: b) Wheezing and stridor
Rationale: Anaphylactic shock is an acute, severe allergic reaction that causes airway
constriction and swelling. This results in wheezing and stridor, which are signs of upper airway
obstruction.
what is cellular adaptation? - Correct Answer-the cells have mechanisms by which they
can adapt their growth and differentiation to altered conditions in the body
what is differentiation? - Correct Answer-the cell's specialization or specific job to
perform a specific function or it's ability to metamorphize to a different cell that is
needed (undifferentiated cells are bad, differentiated is good)
what is atrophy? - Correct Answer-decrease in the size of individual cells, resulting in a
reduced tissue mass
what is hypertrophy? - Correct Answer-increase in the size of individual cells, resulting
in an enlarged tissue mass
what is hyperplasia? - Correct Answer-increased number of cells resulting in an
enlarged tissue mass
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