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WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2025 | ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE | LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS €23,61
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WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2025 | ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE | LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS

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WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2025 | ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE EXAM TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE | LATEST UPDATED AND VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS

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  • 25 janvier 2024
  • 156
  • 2024/2025
  • Examen
  • Questions et réponses

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  • wgu d115 oa 2025
  • d115 exam
  • wgu d115 oa advanced pathophysiologyexam 2024 ac
  • wgu d115 oa advanced pathophysiologyexam
  • wgu d115 oa advanced pathophysiologyexam 2024
  • wgu d115 oa advanced pathophysiology

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WGU D115 OA ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGYEXAM 2024 |
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES AND A READINESS PRACTICE EXAM
TEST BANK WITH A STUDY GUIDE | LATEST UPDATED AND
VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS

Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in
TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8
D) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder,
the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.

,C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts, suspiciousness,
disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing. The
mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The FNP suspects
that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media
A) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a
recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is characterized
by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot potato" voice;
accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess
D) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw
muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness,
tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia. After a
complete history and physical, along with thyroid function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of
hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most common cause of this condition is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Postpartum thyroiditis
B) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is the most
common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which finding in the
patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL

,B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which elevates triglycerides.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells the patient that
the macronutrient with the most influence on the postprandial glucose level is:
A) Fiber
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate
D) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial glucose levels.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
B) This condition is commonly diagnoses on routine examination or work-up for other health
problems.
C) Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually favorable.
D) Insulin resistance is a significant part of the diease.
A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency
resulting in significant hyperglycemia and potential for ketoacidosis.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
B) Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
C) Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the disease
D) Physical activity increases insulin resistance
A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age, obesity, race, and genetics.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
A) Obesity
B) Oral contraceptive use
C) Unopposed estrogen use
D) Advancing age, greater than 50 years
B) Oral contraceptive use
Oral contraceptives have been shown to reduce the incidence of endometrial cancer.
The FNP understands the the most accurate explanation for the diagnosis of mixed precocious
puberty is:

, A) When a child develops some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex.
B) When a child does not develop any identifiable external sex organs.
C) When early puberty occurs due to multiple, integrated causative effects.
D) When early puberty has signs of physical and hormonal abnormalities.
A) When a child develops some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex.
Mixed precocious puberty cases the child to develop some secondary characteristics of the
opposite sex, such as the feminization of a boy.
In the majority of children experiencing delayed puberty, the problem is caused by:
A) Disruption of the hypothalamus.
B) Disruption of the pituitary.
C) Deficiencies in estrogen or testosterone.
D) Physiologic delays in maturation.
D) Physiologic delays in maturation.
In 95% of cases, delayed puberty is physiologic in nature.
Priapism has been associated with the abuse of which substance?
A) Marijuana
B) Alcohol
C) Cocaine
D) Heroin
C) Cocaine
Priapism is an uncommon condition of prolonged penile erection. In 60% of cases the cause is
idiopathic. The remaining 40% are associated with spinal cord trauma, sickle cell disease,
leukemia, pelvic tumors, or infections. It has also been associated with cocaine use.
What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?
A) Gradual decrease in estrogen levels.
B) Sudden increase of LH.
C) Sharp rise in progesterone levels.
D) Gradual increase in estrogen levels.
B) Sudden increase of LH.
Ovulation generally occurs 1-2 hours before the final progesterone surge, or about 12-36 hours
after the onset of the FSH and LH surge.
What type of ovarian cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated but no dominant
follicle develops and completes the maturity process?
A) Follicular
B) Corpus luteum
C) Corpus albicans
D) Benign ovarian

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