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MLS Practice Comp Exam 2024/2025 already graded A+
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MLS Practice Comp Exam 2024/2025 already graded A+
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MLS Practice Comp ExamThe pathophysiology of Glazmann thrombasthenia is:
A. Deficiency of dense granules
B. Deficiency of glycoprotein Ib/IX receptor
C. Deficiency of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
D. deficiency of microtubules - ANSC. Deficiency of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
Chagas disease is caused by:
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma palladium
C. Trypanosoma brucei
D. None of the above - ANSA. Trypanosoma cruzi
What would a patient with a microcyctic/hypochromic anemia most likely have noted on their
CBC?
A. MCV less than 80 fl
B. Hemoglobin of 14.5 gm/dL
C. MCHC of 36 gm/dL
D. MCH of 28-31 pg/dL - ANSA. MCV less than 80 fl
The test of choice and most sensitive assay for use with CSF to diagnose aseptic meningitis
caused by enterovirus is which of the following?
A. Cell culture
B. PCR
C. Agntigenemia immunoassay
D. Shell vial assay - ANSB. PCR
Frequently, DNA probes are used to detect target sequences in Northern or Southern blots.
Hybridization occurs between DNA probe and RNA or DNA on the blot, respectively. To ensure
that only exactly matched complementary sequences have bound together, the blot is washed
under stringent conditions. Stringency of the wash steps to remove unbound and mismatched
probed can be increased by:
A. High temperature, high NaCl concentration, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution
B. High temperature, low NaCl concentraation, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution
C. High temperature, high NaCl concentration, and low detergent (i.e. SDS) concentration
D. Low temperature, high NaCl concentration, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution - ANSB.
High temperature, low NaCl concentration, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution
An ordered sequence of events makes up the cell cycle. Which of the following describes the
correct sequence of events starting at G1?
A. G1, G2, S, M
,B. G1, S, G2, M
C. G1, M, G2, S
D. G1, S, M, G2 - ANSB. G1, S, G2, M
A mold is isolated in the laboratory that displays a velvety, gray-green colony morphology. On
microscopic evaluation, flask-shaped conidiophores arranged in a brush-like formation are seen.
The most likely organism is which of the following?
A. Penicillium sp
B. Acremonium sp
C. Paecilomyces sp
D. Scopulariopsis sp - ANSA. Penicillium sp
Most of the chromosomes abnormalities seen in myelodysplastic syndrome involve which of the
following chromosomes?
A. 5, 7, 8, 11, 13, 20
B. 2, 3, 9, 15, 16, 26
C. 3, 6, 10, 14, 21
D. 1, 4, 15, 17, 21 - ANSA. 5, 7, 8, 11, 13, 20
Crystals in synovial fluid that appear needle-like and are yellow when their long axes lie parallel
to the direction of the slow wave vibration of the compensated polarized light are:
A. Monosodium urate
B. Corticosteroid
C. Hydroxyapatite
D. Calcium Pyrophosphate Dihydrate - ANSA. Monosodium Urate
The most commonly used challenge test to assist in evaluating a potential growth hormone
deficiency is the:
A. Insulin challenge test
B. Dexamethasone suppression test
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Captopril suppression test - ANSInsulin challenge test
In the regulator type of Rh null, which of the following genes is mutated?
A. RHAG
B. RHCE
C. RHD
D. LW - ANSA. RHAG
The major intracellular cation is which of the following?
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate - ANSA. Potassium
,A dermatophyte mold isolated in the laboratory has the following properties: Macroscopic =
white, fluffy colony with red reverse; Microscopic = tear drop shaped, "thyrse" microconidia and
no macroconidia; Urease negative and Hair perforation negative. What is the most likely
identification?
A. Trichophyton tonsurans
B. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
C. Trichophyton rubrum
D. Epidermophyton floccosum - ANSC. Trichopyton rubrum
A patient currently types as group O, Rh positive. The patient's history shows the same ABO/Rh
but with a previously identified anti-E. However, the current sample shows a negative antibody
screen. What type of blood should be transfused to this patient?
A. O Rh positive, AHG compatible
B. O Rh positive, negative for the E antigen, AHG-crossmatch compatible
C. O Rh negative
D. O Rh positive, E antigen negative, electronic crossmatch acceptable - ANSB. O Rh positive,
negative for E antigen, AHG-crossmatch compatible
An MLS accidentally adds factor VII deficient plasma to the patient's specimen instead of normal
pooled plasma when performing the initial mixing studies. A PT is then performed on the mixed
specimen. If the PT does not correct what is the likely explanation?
A. The patient has a lupuslike anticoagulant
B. The patient likely has a factor VII deficiency
C. No conclusions can be made because the factor-deficient plasma reagent affects all PT
measurements
D. This is a normal result - ANSB. The patient likely has a factor VII deficiency
Which disorder results in secretion of "Bence Jones" light chains in the urine?
A. Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia
B. Multiple Myeloma
C. Wegener's Disease
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency - ANSB. Multiple myeloma
Platelets must be kept in constant motion for which of the following reasons?
A. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion
B. Keep the platelets in suspension and prevent clumping of the platelets
C. Mimic what is going on in the blood vessels
D. Preserve the coagulation factors and platelet viability - ANSA. Maintain the pH so the
platelets will be alive before transfusion
Which of the following factors binds to platelets via the glycoprotein Ib/IX receptor?
A. von Willebrand factor
B. Factor II
, C. Fibrinogen
D. Thrombin - ANSA. von Willebrand factor
The type of graft rejection that occurs within minutes of a tissue transplant is:
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Hyperacute
D. Accelerated - ANSC. Hyperacute
If a fasting plasma glucose level of 100 mg/dL is obtained on an individual, the expected fasting
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose level in mg/dL would be:
A. 25
B. 50
C. 65
D. 100
E. 180 - ANSC. 65
On first glance a peripheral blood smear appears to be of poor quality. On further investigation it
is determined that the smear contains numerous smudge cells. This cellular artifact is
associated with which of the following?
A. Chronic Lymphocyte Leukemia
B. Hairy Cell Leukemia
C. Infectious Mononucleosis
D. Plasmacytic Leukemia - ANSA. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
In certain malignant disorders, a substance is found in the urine that turns the urine dark brown
or black on exposure of the urine to air. The substance is:
A. Urobilinogen
B. Indican
C. Melanin
D. Porphyrin
E. 5-HIAA - ANSC. Melanin
Which of the following is a key characteristic of Coccidioides immitis?
A. Has a higher dissemination rate in white females
B. Is endemic in the Northeastern United States
C. Produces endosporulating spherules in tissue
D. Forms foot cells - ANSC. Produces endosporulating spherules in tissue
An increased osmole gap is most commonly seen in which of the following?
A. Type 2 diabetes
B. Pancreatitis
C. Presence of toxins such as ethanol and ethylene glycol
D. Liver failure - ANSC. Presence of toxins such as ethanol and ethylene glycol
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