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AANP FNP CERTIFICATION EXAM BANK 2025 | ACCURATE REAL EXAM CURRENTLY TESTING AND FREQUENTLY TESTING EXAM QUESTIONS WITH EXPERT VERIFIED ANSWERS AND RATIONALES FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE €21,58
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AANP FNP CERTIFICATION EXAM BANK 2025 | ACCURATE REAL EXAM CURRENTLY TESTING AND FREQUENTLY TESTING EXAM QUESTIONS WITH EXPERT VERIFIED ANSWERS AND RATIONALES FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE

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AANP FNP CERTIFICATION EXAM BANK 2025 | ACCURATE REAL EXAM CURRENTLY TESTING AND FREQUENTLY TESTING EXAM QUESTIONS WITH EXPERT VERIFIED ANSWERS AND RATIONALES FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE

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  • 23 mars 2024
  • 16 janvier 2025
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AANP FNP CERTIFICATION EXAM BANK 2025 | ACCURATE
REAL EXAM CURRENTLY TESTING AND FREQUENTLY
TESTING EXAM QUESTIONS WITH EXPERT VERIFIED
ANSWERS AND RATIONALES FOR GUARANTEED PASS |
LATEST UPDATE
1.
Question: Which of the following laboratory tests are most widely accepted as indicators of the
progression of HIV infection?
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and CD4 count
B. Viral load and platelet count
C. CD4 count and viral load
D. Serum ferritin and lymphocyte count
Correct Answer: C. CD4 count and viral load
Rationale: In HIV management, the CD4 count reflects immune status, and viral load reflects
how actively the virus is replicating.


2.
Question: A patient who is 28 weeks pregnant reports a single episode of vaginal bleeding.
History indicates normal prenatal progress, and the patient denies pain or discharge. Which of
the following is the most appropriate intervention to aid in the diagnosis?
A. Speculum examination
B. Ultrasound
C. Immediate cesarean section
D. Fetal fibronectin test
Correct Answer: B. Ultrasound
Rationale: Painless vaginal bleeding in pregnancy warrants an ultrasound to evaluate placental
position and rule out placenta previa.


3.
Question: A 3-year-old presents with fever, cough, malaise, and loss of appetite. The child lives
with relatives, including a grandmother who also has a cough. Which diagnostic test is most
appropriate for this child?
A. Rapid influenza swab
B. Sputum culture


1|Page

,C. Throat culture for strep
D. Pulmonary function test
Correct Answer: B. Sputum culture
Rationale: Given the familial exposure and persistent cough, testing sputum can help identify
bacterial pathogens such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis or other organisms.


4.
Question: Which of the following best describes psoriatic lesions in an elderly patient?
A. Hypopigmented macules with central clearing
B. Red, sharply defined plaques with silvery scales
C. Purple papules with lace-like borders
D. Hyperpigmented patches with vesicles
Correct Answer: B. Red, sharply defined plaques with silvery scales
Rationale: Psoriasis commonly appears as well-demarcated erythematous plaques topped with
silvery-white scales.


5.
Question: A patient with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and coronary artery disease is on
insulin and a beta blocker. Because beta blockers can mask certain signs of hypoglycemia, which
symptom is most indicative of hypoglycemia in this patient?
A. Tachycardia
B. Tremors
C. Sweating
D. Palpitations
Correct Answer: C. Sweating
Rationale: Beta blockers blunt the adrenergic signs of hypoglycemia (like tachycardia), but
sweating often remains a reliable indicator.


6.
Question: An 88-year-old male presents with concerns about memory loss. He is otherwise
healthy, lives alone, and manages his finances. Which of the following tests is most appropriate
to evaluate his memory?
A. Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)
B. Trail Making Test


2|Page

,C. Folstein Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
D. Clock Drawing Test
Correct Answer: C. Folstein Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
Rationale: The MMSE is a widely used, brief screening tool to assess cognitive function in older
adults.


7.
Question: Which of the following is the leading cause of cancer-related deaths in the majority of
women?
A. Breast cancer
B. Lung cancer
C. Ovarian cancer
D. Colorectal cancer
Correct Answer: B. Lung cancer
Rationale: Lung cancer is the top cause of cancer deaths in women (and men) when considering
overall mortality.


8.
Question: Which of the following findings typically suggests acute appendicitis?
A. Positive Murphy’s sign
B. Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point
C. Palpable spleen on inspiration
D. Left lower quadrant tenderness
Correct Answer: B. Rebound tenderness at McBurney’s point
Rationale: McBurney’s point tenderness (rebound pain) is classically associated with acute
appendicitis.


9.
Question: A patient with macular degeneration has difficulty seeing objects:
A. In the upper visual field
B. In the periphery of the visual field
C. In the center of the visual field
D. At night only



3|Page

, Correct Answer: C. In the center of the visual field
Rationale: Macular degeneration primarily affects central vision, leading to difficulty reading
and recognizing faces.


10.
Question: To assess a patient’s ability to think abstractly, a nurse practitioner could ask the
patient:
A. To define “tachycardia.”
B. To recite today’s date and location.
C. The meaning of a common proverb.
D. To write the alphabet backwards.
Correct Answer: C. The meaning of a common proverb.
Rationale: Interpreting proverbs tests abstract reasoning ability.


11.
Question: During an employment physical exam of a 21-year-old female, bruising around the
areolae is noted. An appropriate health history for these findings should include all of the
following EXCEPT:
A. Sexual activity or potential abuse
B. Breast trauma or rough physical contact
C. Socioeconomic status
D. Possible self-harm or accidental injury
Correct Answer: C. Socioeconomic status
**Rationale
Rationale: While exploring possible causes of bruising (e.g., abuse, trauma, self-inflicted injury)
is critical, the patient’s socioeconomic status is not directly relevant to the physical finding of
areolar bruising.


12.
Question: The best laboratory test to distinguish iron deficiency anemia from other anemias is:
A. Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
B. Serum ferritin level
C. Serum B12 level
D. Red blood cell (RBC) morphology


4|Page

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