SURGERY EOR EXAM PA EASY FINAL EXAM 2024

SURGERY EOR EXAM PA EASY FINAL EXAM 2024 . During a pre-surgical workup, a patient reports that she had received Desmopressin following the birth of her son. Her CBC is within normal range, as well as her PT and aPTT. What is the most likely cause of her needing this medication? A Allo immunization following vaginal delivery B Hemolytic anemia C Iron deficiency anemia D Thalassemia E Von Willebrand's disease - answer-The Correct Answer is: E Desmopressin is the mainstay of therapy for people with von Willebrand's disease. Hemolytic anemia, iron deficiency anemia, and thalassemia would all have abnormal findings on the CBC. Allo immunization does not require desmopressin therapy. What absolute tissue pressure generally is used as a guideline for diagnosing compartment syndrome? A 10 mm Hg B 20 mm Hg C 30 mm Hg D 40 mm Hg E 50 mm Hg - answer-The Correct Answer is: C Many trauma surgery services use an absolute tissue pressure of approximately 30 mm Hg as the threshold for diagnosing compartment syndrome. Based on the entire clinical picture, patients with numbers in that range or higher will likely require surgical decompression with a fasciotomy, while lower numbers will probably be managed with a more conservative approach. What is the most common site of an acute arterial occlusion due to embolic disease? A Iliac artery B Aortic bifurcation C Mesenteric arteries D Femoral artery E Popliteal artery - answer-The Correct Answer is: D The most common site for an acute embolic occlusion is the femoral artery. Other common sites include the axillary, popliteal, and iliac arteries as well as the aortic bifurcation and mesenteric vessels. The majority (80%) of arterial embolic originate in the heart in patients with atrial fibrillation or from mural thrombi in the left ventricle from an akinetic or dyskinetic portion of the myocardium following a myocardial infarction. A 64-year-old man has been experiencing signs and symptoms compatible with diverticular disease for the past 3 weeks. He now presents to the emergency department malnourished with severe left-sided lower abdominal pain. After appropriate workup and hydration, he is taken to the operating room where a perforated sigmoid colon is discovered with gross contamination. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention at this time? A Left colectomy with primary anastomosis B Hartmann procedure C Proctocolectomy D Abdominoperineal resection E Low anterior resection - answer-The Correct Answer is: B This vignette is consistent with an emergent resection in an unprepared patient. The most appropriate therapy for an acute perforation is a Hartmann procedure, which includes resection of the affected portion of the bowel, a temporary diverting colostomy, and oversewing of the distal rectal stump; the second stage of the procedure will involve taking down the colostomy with anastomosis to the rectal stump. A colectomy with a primary anastomosis should not be done when the bowel is unprepared due to the significant risk of infection and leakage of the bowel at the site of the anastomosis. Abdominoperineal resection is used in the treatment of malignant disease of the lower rectum. In this procedure, a permanent colostomy is created and the entire rectum, anal canal, and anus are removed. In the management of benign disease of the lower rectum, a proctocolectomy is appropriate to preserve anal function.