CLTM Quiz Graded A+ 2024

Stimulation assessment should be made on patients monitored in the ICU - Daily **What function has the lowest risk of being affected if a temporal lobectomy is performed in the dominant hemisphere - Supplementary Motor Deficits Where would the central sulcus be found in this sample - Between G3-G4 The purpose of bilateral mesial temporal depth electrodes is to - Lateralize hippocampal seizure focus The sample EEG shown, most closely represents a(n) - 58 year old survivor of cardiopulmonary resuscitation ACNS Guidelines recommends the following filter performance specifications - LFF 0.5 Hz - HFF 70 Hz When is it permissible to release patient information to a third party? - With written consent of the patient **Focal seizures with symptoms of "tingling" sensations in the face likely originate in - inferior post-central gyrus **First line treatment for Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome - Valproic Acid **Which is not a characteristic of the RNS Neurostimulator - It is used as an adjunctive therapy for adults and children Hypothalamic Hamartomas are associated with - Gelastic seizures Which of the following is a violation of ABRET's Code of Ethics? - Not striving to keep current in the technology **Landau-Kleffner Syndrome usually presents with - Temporal lobe seizures **Delayed cerebral ischemia occurring after aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is a result of a - Vasaspasm At what conceptual age would Delta Brushes start to appear - 30 weeks **Total suppression of the EEG followed by cardiovascular instability can be caused by - barbiturates Seizures characterized by hypersalivation, oral-facial apraxia, and at times facial clonic activity, orginate - Frontal operculum 24-48 hour continuous EEG monitoring in the ICU is recommended for diagnosing - Non-convulsive Status The intracarotid amobarbital test is used to determine cerebral dominance for - language and memory function What does LPD+R stand for in the 2012 ACNS EEG terminology - lateralized periodic discharges + superimposed rhythmic activity The EEG pattern seen with Ohtahara Syndrome is - Burst Suppression PET scan in a child with Rasmussen's encephalitis will most likely demonstrate - Widespread hemispheric hypometabolism **Which childhood epileptic syndrome has the best prognosis - Panayiotopoulous Syndrome Relative to P7 the P9 electrode placement is placed - 10% lateral to P7 Damage to Wernicke's area may result in - Receptive aphasia Where can the central sulcus be found in the following sample - G4-5 **A typical surgical treatment that is considered for Temporal Lobe Epilepsy - Focal resection Montage Key Code: LAD = Left Amygdala; LHD = Left Hippocampus Depth; LST = Left subdural strip temporal neocortical; RAD = Right Amygdala; RHD = Right Hippocampus Depth; RST = Right subdural strip temporal neocortical. This sample demonstrates: - bilateral independent spike and wave Which of the following is most likely to be seen in the postictal EEG - Delta activity in the region of seizure origin compared to before the seizure Which of the following is grounds for disciplinary action according to ABRET's Code of Ethics - Being found to have been ineligible to take the credentialing exam, even if the credential has already been earned Per ACNS Guidelines, what is the minimum number of EEG channels required for LTME equipment capability - 32-64 channels Wernicke's area lies in the - Posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus Accurate evaluation of language interruption during stimulation must have the absence of - Afterdischarges (ADs) The greatest utility of CEEG is in the ICU patients with - Unexplained "spells" such as variations in vital signs or twitching What is the most common spacing of electrode disks on a 4 point intracranial strip - 1 cm The typical latency for somatosensory cortical potentials to upper extremity stimulation is - 20 msec **What type of anesthesia is best for electrocorticography in the operating rooms - Desflurane If a patient was experiencing tongue numbness, which contacts would most likely show an EEG abnormality - 28-29 **What should be done in the case of pulse artifact - Slightly displace the electrode During functional mapping, afterdischarges (ADs) are more likely to occur with intensities greater than - 10mA **In the Intensive Care Unit, what is the most commonly encountered EEG medication effect that is not specific for a particular medication? - Generalized Slowing Afterdischarges (ADs) - Periodic or continuous epileptiform discharges A surgical treatment for Landau-Kleffner Syndrome - Multiple Subpial Transection Which of the following is a criterion for sudden unexpected death in epilepsy (SUDEP) - No explained cause Hypothalamic Hamartomas are assocated with - Gelastic seizures An effectively known treatment option for Hypothalamic Hamartomas is - Gamma Knife This type of surgical treatment is most beneficial for patients who have epileptic zones arising from or overlapping with eloquent cortex - Multiple Subpial Transection Based on the 2015 American Red Cross Guidelines for CPR, compression depth for adults is - At least 2" **Functional brain mapping is used to define and confine the excision to - Non- eloquent cortex Triphasic Waves - metabolic encephalopathy **Which of the following conditions does ACNS NOT recommend long term monitoring for neonates - autonomic paroxysms **Vasospasm - Arterial vessel constriction Strip and grid electrodes are composed of - Stainless steel or platinum SPECT - Single Photon Emission Computed Tomography Hypsarrhythmia is a pattern most often associated with - Infantile spasms Evaluating the sample EEG given, which of the following diagnosis is most likely - Hippocampal Sclerosis Functional mapping of eloquent cortex includes - Motor, sensory and language Artifact seen when an electrode is sitting over a vessel - Pulse artifact According to the National Association of Epilepsy Centers (NAEC), the main difference between a level 3 and level 4 Epilepsy Center is that a Level 3 center - Is not able to perform intracranial evaluations and is not able to offer complex resective epilepsy surgery Landau-Kleffner Syndrome - Aphasia Per ACNS Guidelines, an important aspect of montage design for LTME is to clearly separate activity from the - Basal temporal and 10/20 cortical derivations SI or SIRPIDS patterns are induced by - Stimulus **Where are sphenoidal locations are used to record epileptiform activity - the mesial or anterior aspects of the temporal lobe Which contacts would show an abnormality if the patient was experiencing expressive aphasia - 33-34 Therapeutic hypothermia is indicated for better outcome in adult patients with - Cardiac arrest **Anterior tongue and lip bites often indicate - non-epileptic seizure Focal seizures with symptoms of "tingling" sensations in the face likely originate in - inferior post-central gyrus **WADA - homunculus mapping **Sphedoidal electrodes - anterior tip of temporal lobe Which of the following electrodes from the 10-20 system would be useful on a patient with suspected benign rolandic epilepsy - CP1 **Which polarity and electrode signal generates from the Motor cortex when doing phase reversal monitoring - Positive Polarity, P22 Collodion - flammable liquid T1 and T2 electrode placement - 1 cm superior to 1/3 of the distance from the external eye canthus and the tragus (third closet to tragus) According to the International League Against Epilepsy (ILAE) 2015 Guidelines for Status Epilepticus (SE), SE can result in neuronal injury and functional deficits are likely after - 30 minutes **An EEG finding that can be seen with Absence epilepsy - OIRDA Ictal weeping and pelvic thrusting may indicate - Non-epileptic events The recommended duration for cEEG in a non-comatose patient suspected of having non-conclusive seizures is - 24 hours Vagus nerve stimulators are approved for use in patients with - partial seizures Cortical stimulation near the inferior frontal gyrus will most likely result in - Expressive aphasia **Which of the following is primarily limited to selected catastrophic infant and early childhood epilepsies - Hemispherectomy **Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response to a significant acetone spill - Evacuate and ventilate the area