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PRITE 2024 - PART II FINAL EXAM|300 BRAND NEW EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS ALL GRADED A+|GUARANTEED SUCCESS|LATEST UPDATE The impaired physician who fails to obtain or benefit from treatment may require the services of an administrative psychiatrist skilled in performing fit...

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PRITE 2024 - PART II FINAL EXAM|300
BRAND NEW EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS ALL GRADED
A+|GUARANTEED SUCCESS|LATEST
UPDATE 2024-2025




The impaired physician who fails to obtain or benefit from treatment may require
the services of an administrative psychiatrist skilled in performing fitness-for-duty
evaluations. In these situations, the administrative psychiatrist:
A serves as a patient advocate
B has the authority to administer necessary treatment
C may assist the physician with professional obligations
D is not bound by the usual parameters of confidentiality
E may not respond to the physician's questions concerning diagnosis or treatment -
ANSWER-✔D

Contralateral leg weakness with sparing of the face and arm associated with urinary
incontinence and abulia are typical for stroke in the territory of which of the
following arteries?
A Basilar
B Carotid
C Middle cerebral
D Anterior cerebral
E Posterior cerebral - ANSWER-✔D

Which of the following is the most common comorbidity in a pt with an anxiety
disorder?
A a mood disorder
B a personality disorder
C another anxiety disorder

,D a substance use disorder
E an impulse control disorder - ANSWER-✔C

A 55-year-old woman undergoes gastric bypass surgery and, several weeks later,
develops gait imbalance and numbness in the feet. Neurological exam is remarkable
for hyperreflexia, spasticity in the legs and absent vibration sensation at the toes.
Serum B12 level is normal. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely to
cause these symptoms.
A Iron
B Folate
C Copper
D Thiamine
E Pyridoxine - ANSWER-✔C

Which of the following statistics measures the magnitude of difference between
two intervention groups?
A p-value
B odds ratio
C effect size
D power analysis
E number needed to treat - ANSWER-✔C

A 24-year-old is seen on the consult service for worsening disorientation and
suspected delirium. The patient's initial presentation was notable for the
development of severe headaches after starting on a high protein, low carbohydrate
diet. There is no prior psychiatric history, but the patient reports slow growth as a
child. Which of the following is the most definitive way to establish the diagnosis in
this individual?
A Muscle biopsy
B chromosome microarray
C MECP2 gene sequencing
D Plasma amino acid analysis
E Ornithine transcarbamylase sequencing - ANSWER-✔E

A consulting psychiatrist suspects schizotypal personality disorder in a pt with odd
speech patterns, eccentric appearance and constricted affect. Which of the following
additional features would support this diagnosis?
A Anhedonia
B Paranoid ideation
C Lack of social anxiety
D Auditory hallucinations
E Delusions of reference - ANSWER-✔B

Which of the following distinguishes empathy from identification?
A Establishing rapport
B Retaining objectivity in the relationship
C Experiencing what the patient is feeling

,D Understanding what the patient is feeling
E Being able to put oneself in the patient's place - ANSWER-✔B

Which of the following neuropsychological tests examines both executive and
visuospatial functioning?
A Clock drawing
B Facial recognition
C Verbal fluency test
D Digit span backward
E Wisconsin card sorting test - ANSWER-✔A

The number of new events in proportion to the population at risk for the event is
referred to as:
A Point prevalence
B Incidence density
C Period prevalence
D Lifetime prevelance
E Cumulative incidence - ANSWER-✔E

An insurance company pays a physician a single, standardized sum for a patient's
care during a one-year period. This is known as what type of payment?
A per diem
B capitation
C global budget
D fee-for-service
E episode of illness - ANSWER-✔B

Which of the following risk factors is most strongly associated with prolonged or
complicated bereavement?
A Male gender
B Acceptance of the loss
C Higher socioeconomic status
D Higher levels or prior relationship satisfaction
E Absence of significant mood symptoms in the first month after the loss - ANSWER-
✔A

Which of the following antiepileptic medications reduces the efficacy of oral
contraceptives?
A Valproate
B Gabapentin
C Zonisamide
D Levetiracetam
E Carbamazepine - ANSWER-✔E

The genetic syndrome characterized by developmental delay, cardiac abnormalities,
palate defects, immune deficiency, and an increased risk of schizophrenia is caused
by which of the following types of chromosome mutations?

, A Deletion
B Insertion
C Inversion
D Duplication
E Translocation - ANSWER-✔A

Which of the following findings on EEG, when seen during REM sleep, would be
most diagnostic of a REM sleep behavior disorder?
A Excess muscle tone
B Increased fasiculations
C Reduced recruitment of muscle fibers
D Shortened firing duration of muscle units
E Increased spontaneous muscle fiber discharges - ANSWER-✔A

A 13-year-old pt is evaluated by the psychiatrist. The pt's parents report that the pt
is "sleepy" during the day, and often seems dazed and "out of it." Additionally, the pt
is often not hungry and sometimes complains of nausea. On exam, the pt has red
eyes, a runny nose and red sores around the mouth. Which of the following is mos
likely?
A Cannabis
B Heroin
C Aerosols
D Opiates
E Stimulants - ANSWER-✔C

Which of the following is a feature of the Medicare system?
A Part A covers outpatient
B Part B covers subsidy payments for prescription drugs
C Part B is an optional purchasable benefit for senior citizens
D Medicare also provides healthcare coverage to indigent children
E Medicare covers costs of long-term institutional care in nursing homes - ANSWER-
✔C

Which of the following immunomodulators is associated with increased risk of
significant depression in patients with cancer?
A Mitoxantrone
B Natalizumab
C Glatiramer
D Interferon
E Fingolimod - ANSWER-✔D

Which of the following antipsychotic medications carries the lowest risk of QT
prolongation on ECG?
A Quetiapine
B Haliperidol
C Ziprasidone
D Aripiprazole

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