Which of the following best describes continuous renal replacement therapy (CCRT)
A. Blood from an artery is circulated to a hemofilter using only arterial pressure and not a blood
pump
B. Blood is circulated by hydrostatic pressure through a semipermeable membrane
C. Blood is pumped through a double-lumen venous catheter to a hemofilter
D. A dialysate is used to increase clearance of uremic toxins - answer✔CCRT circulates the
blood by hydrostatic pressure through a semipermeable membrane. It is used in critical care
units because it can be instituted quickly.
A. Blood is pumped through a double-lumen venous catheter to a hemofilter is continuous
venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH)
B. Use of a dialysate to increase clearance of uremic toxins is also a description of CVVH
D. Blood from an artery circulated to a hemofilter using only arterial pressure and not a blood
pump is an example of continuous arteriovenous hemofiltration (CAVH)
Complications associated with dialysis include:
A. Peritonitis
B. Dysrhythmias
C. Bleeding especially in females
D. Anorexia - answer✔Correct Answer: Dysrhythmias.
Hemodialysis can cause hypotension, muscle cramping and dysrhythmias during treatment
A, B, C are all examples of complications of peritoneal dialysis.
The difference in myocarditis and pericarditis is:
A. Myocarditis is diagnosed by a myocardial biopsy
B. Pericarditis is treated according to the cause and the type and extent of inflammation
C. Pericarditis is caused by endocarditis
D. Myocarditis requires pericardiocentesis - answer✔A. Diagnostic procedures for pericarditis
are similar to those for endocarditis and myocarditis. The age, size and condition of the patient
with pericarditis also determine treatment which may include: analgesics, anti-inflammatory
drugs, restriction of activity, corticosteroids, and surgical intervention including
percardiocentesis
B. Performing a myocardial biopsy in a patient with suspected myocarditis would allow
diagnosis but the procedure is so high risk due to the friability of the myocardium, it is not
recommended
C. Myocarditis may be a complication of endocarditis but is usually triggered by a viral infection
such as influenza, coxsackie and HIV
D. Pericarditis may require surgical intervention such as pericardiocentesis or removing fluid
from the pericardial sac to relieve increasing pressure and diagnose causative agents.
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) occurs when a hypoxic condition causes renal ischemia that
damages tubular cells of the glomeruli so they are unable to adequately filter the urine, leading
to acute renal failure. Treatment of ATN includes:
A. Loop diuretics
B. Fluid restriction
C. Antibiotics
D. FFP for coagulopathy - answer✔Correct Answer: Loop diuretics
Explanation: A. Adequate fluid balance is necessary to perfuse the kidneys. Identifying and
treating underlying cause is key
C. Antibiotics including sulfonamides and streptomycin can cause ATN. Antibiotics should only
be continued if infection is present
D. Coagulopathy may develop if uremia is present. Uremia leads to destruction of platelets and
bleeding.
In Piaget's formal operational stage, development includes:
A. Egocentrism
B. Flexibility of thought
C. Magical thinking
D. Organization - answer✔Correct Answer: Flexibility of thought
D. The formal operational stage of Piaget's theory of cognitive approach to development
includes abstract thought and flexibility of thought. The age range a child begins to exhibit this
is 12 years and older
A. Magical thinking and
B. Egocentrism are in the preoperational thinking stage; ages 2-7 years
C. Organization is found in the concrete operational thinking which is 7-12 years of age
The most common cause of bladder obstruction in the pediatric male patient is:
A. Hypospadius
B. Post urethral valve related issues
C. Undescended testes
D. Single kidney - answer✔Explanation: C. Post urethral valve issues are the most common
cause of bladder obstruction in pediatric male patients.
A, B, D. None of these GU or renal abnormalities cause bladder obstruction
When doing Pulmonary Function Tests (PFTs), the NP recalls:
A. Asthma is a form of restrictive lung disease
B. Forced expiration is the best indicator of obstructive airway disease
C. Forced expiration is the best indicator of restrictive airway disease
D. A value is considered abnormal if it is less than 50% of your predicted value -
answer✔Correct Answer: Forced expiration is the best indicator of obstructive airway disease
Explanation: A. In PFT's, forced expiration is the best indicator of obstructive airway disease.
Obstructive disease make the lungs contain too much air and take longer to empty. Changes in
lung volumes and capacities are generally consistent with the pattern of impairment. With
obstructive lung disease total lung capacity, functional residual capacity and residual lung
volume increase. With obstructive lung diseases, these decrease.
B. See explanation for A.
C. A value is considered abnormal if it is less than 80% of your predicted value
D. Asthma is a type of obstructive lung disease
A child in the emergency department has point tenderness over the proximal tibia and an
appropriate history of trauma. The radiograph show a fracture through the growth plate that
extends in to the epiphysis and joint space. This type of fracture would be characterized as:
A. Salter - Harris Type I
B. Salter - Harris Type II
C. Salter - Harris Type III
D. Salter - Harris Type IV - answer✔Explanation: C. Salter - Harris type III is a fracture through
the growth plate that extends into the epiphysis and into the joint space. They may require
open reduction and fixation.
A. Salter - Harris type I occur along the growth plate
B. Salter - Harris Type II fractures extend into the metaphysis only
D. Salter - Harris Type IV fractures go through both the metaphysis and epiphysis into the joint
space. Type V fractures result from compression of the growth plate
Which of the following is considered a risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?
4|Page
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