Gcs 8 or less - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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West Coast EMT Block Exam 3 Questions and Answers 100% Pass
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A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped before you 
arrived at the scene. The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, and 
refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to 
disagree with his refusal of transport? 
Select one: 
A. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15 
B. His wife states that this was his "usual" seizure 
C. He has experienced seizures since he was 20 
D. He is currently n...
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Comprehensive CRNA Interview Review Accurate responses are given.
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Comprehensive CRNA Interview Review Accurate responses are given. 
 
Comprehensive CRNA Interview Review 
 
Norepinephrine Mechanism of Action (MOA) 
A1, A2, B1 agonist. 
 
Primary agent used in distributive shock because it's ability to recruit venous volume and augment preload, while increasing arterial tone, and increasing cardiac output. 
 
Alpha one causing peripheral smooth muscle contraction. (low dose venous, high dose venous and arterial). 
 
Alpha 2 adrenoreceptor agonism actually ant...
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2024 EMT JBL Module 4 Form B Practice Exam New Full Exam Questions and Answers ( Included ) 100% Correct
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2024 EMT JBL Module 4 Form B Practice Exam 
New Full Exam Questions and Answers ( Included ) 100% Correct 
 
1. A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, whichstopped before 
you arrived at the scene.The patient is conscious, is answering your questions appropriately, 
and refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to 
disagree with his refusalof transport? 
A. He is currently not prescribed any medications 
B. His Glasgow Coma...
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CBIS Exam Questions & Answers(RATED A+)
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* Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) 3-8 - ANSWER Severe TBI; normal or abnormal structural imaging. LOC over 24 hours, post traumatic amnesia over 7 days 
 
* Glasgow Coma Scale 9-12 - ANSWER Moderate TBI; LOC over 30 minutes but less than 24 hours; alteration of consciousness over 24 hours, post traumatic amnesia more than 1 day but less than 7 days 
 
* Glasgow Coma Scale 13-15 - ANSWER Mild TBI; normal imaging; LOC 0-30 minutes, alteration of consciousness up to 24 hours, post traumatic amnesia up to ...
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ALL HESI EXIT Questions and Answers Test Bank; A+ Rated Guide
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ALL HESI EXIT Questions and Answers Test Bank; A+ Rated Guide 
STUDY FOR EXIT HESI/ATI EXAM 
ALL HESI EXIT Questions and Answers Test Bank; A+ Rated Guide (2022) 
271. A client receives a new prescription for simvastatin (Zocor) 5 mg PO daily at bedtime. What action should the nurse take? (correct Answer- Administer the medication as prescribed with a glass of water 
272. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence? A client Who is confused and f...
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Nura 1110 Final Exam Questions with Correct Answers 100% Verified
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Nura 1110 Final Exam Questions with Correct Answers 100% Verified 
what is bradypnea? 
what is it associated with? - Correct Answer slow respirations; less that 10 bpm 
depression of resp. center by meds, brain damage 
 
What do you do if you discover an irregular radial pulse? - Correct Answer occurs when the beats and pauses between beats occur at unequal intervals; known as dysrhythmia 
take apical pulse and count 1 *FULL* min, then report 
 
what are accessory muscles used for? - Correct Ans...
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CBIS Exam | 500 Questions with 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Updated 2024
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* Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) 3-8 - Severe TBI; normal or abnormal structural 
imaging. LOC over 24 hours, post traumatic amnesia over 7 days 
* Glasgow Coma Scale 9-12 - Moderate TBI; LOC over 30 minutes but less than 
24 hours; alteration of consciousness over 24 hours, post traumatic amnesia more 
than 1 day but less than 7 days 
* Glasgow Coma Scale 13-15 - Mild TBI; normal imaging; LOC 0-30 minutes, 
alteration of consciousness up to 24 hours, post traumatic amnesia up to 1 day 
* 3 parts of n...
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CRRN - Certified Rehabilitation Registered Nurse Exam Study Review
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knack maneuver - Answer- form of Kegal exercise used to prevent incontinence 
 
Orem's Theory of Self-Care Model states that its goal of nursing is to serve patients and assist them to provide self-care. What are the 3 categories of needs? - Answer- universal, developmental, health 
 
normal Timed Up and Go (TUG) - Answer- 7-10 seconds 
 
What is the most successful position for sexual activity for a woman with cerebral palsy? - Answer- side-lying with bolster between knees 
 
Which is the best...
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NURS 265 Exam 3
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• -decreased LOC(lethargy to coma) 
-restlessness, irritability, confusion 
-headache 
-projectile N&V 
-change in speech pattern/slurred speech 
-dilated nonreactive pupils or constructed nonreactive pupils 
-ataxia 
-seizure 
-abnormal posturing 
-Cushing's triad: severe HTN, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia 
• Key sx of increased ICP 
• Symptoms of increased ICP 
-severe HTN, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia 
• What is Cushing's triad 
• Most at risk during 1st 72 hours afte...
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NR 341; REAL EXAM | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) | GRADED+ | LATEST UPDATE
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What dressing should be applied upon chest tube removal ? 
 ANSWER: airtight sterile petroleum jelly gauze dressing 
What are the reasons YOUR pt. may need an artificial airway ? 
 ANSWER: ●upper airway obstruction (bleeds, tumor, gcs less than 8, burns) 
●sx 
●trauma 
●neuromuscular diseases 
●sepsis 
●apnea 
●high risk for aspiration 
●ineffective clearance of secretions 
●resp distress 
When a pt. has a tube in their trachea, what do you need to know as a nurse ? 
 ANSWER: w...
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