Hepatic encephalopathy - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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NR 293 Final Exam 3 (2023/2024) Verified Questions and Answers (FULL EXAM)
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NR 293 Final Exam 3 
 
1.	A nurse is teaching a client about the adverse effect of zolpidem. Which of the following adverse effect? 
a.	daytime sleepiness 
b.	double vision 
c.	nighttime sweating 
d.	change in taste 
2.	The nurse is caring for a client prescribed insulin regular 5 units subcutaneously (SQ) at dinner and insulin NPH 10 unit subcutaneously dinner. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take? 
a.	withdraws the insulin NPH first; then withdraw the insulin regular, both in...
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NURS 5315 Exam 4 Blueprint 2023
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NURS 5315 Exam 4 Blueprint 2023. NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology 
Characteristics of struvite renal stones 
 Causes of hepatic encephalopathy
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RN Adult Medical Surgical Online Practice 2019 A a nurse is caring for a client who has hepatic encephalopathy that is being treated with lactulose. the client is experiencing excessive stools. which of the following findings is an adverse effect of the m
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RN Adult Medical Surgical Online Practice 2019 A 
a nurse is caring for a client who has hepatic encephalopathy that is being treated with 
lactulose. the client is experiencing excessive stools. which of the following findings is an 
adverse effect of the medication? 
- hypokalemia 
a nurse is caring for a client who has emphysema and is receiving mechanical ventilation. the 
client appears anxious and restless, and the high-pressure alarm is sounding. which of the 
following actions should the...
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NURS 302 module 1 practice Questions and Answers with complete solution
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Which of the following nursing assessment findings are consistent with alcohol withdrawal? 
A. Patient is diaphoretic, constipated, cannot eat his lunch, p = 70, BP = 140/85, T = 101°F 
B. Patient is agitated and tremulous, p = 100, BP = 110/70, T = 101°F 
C. Patient is disoriented when awake, sleeping on and off throughout the shift, skin cool and dry, T = 
98.4°F 
D. Patient is vomiting, tremulous, having difficulty sleeping, p = 100, BP = 160/95, T = 99°F - Answer-D. 
Patient is vomiting,...
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NSG552 Exam 3 |73 questions and answers.
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naloxone 
MOA: Pure opioid antagonist that competes and displaces opioids at opioid receptor sites. 
 
 
 
methadone, buprenorphine, buprenorphine+naloxone 
Treatments for opioid use disorder. 
 
 
 
buprenorphine+naloxone 
Treatment for opioid use disorder with comorbid pain. 
 
 
 
opioids 
Inappropriate use of what substance may be due to uncontrolled pain? 
 
 
 
tablet, injectable, implant 
Naltrexone delivery methods. 
 
 
 
implant 
Form of naltrexone limited to inpatient use. 
 
 
 
bupr...
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NR293 / NR 293 Comprehensive Exam (New 2024/2025 Update) Pharmacology | Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct | A Grade -Chamberlain
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NR293 / NR 293 Comprehensive Exam (New 
2024/2025 Update) Pharmacology | Questions 
and Verified Answers| 100% Correct | A 
Grade -Chamberlain 
 
QUESTION 
QUESTION 
 A common side effect of codeine is: 
 
 
Answer: 
Nausea and Vomiting 
*Do not give on an empty stomach* 
 
 
 
QUESTION 
 Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) dosages are started at the _____ dose initially 
 
 
Answer: 
Lowest 
 
 
 
QUESTION 
 This lab test is used to aid in the diagnosis of heart failure 
 
 
Answer...
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Adult Chronic Exam 2 Office Hours, Answered
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Adult Chronic Exam 2 Office Hours, Answered-Bolded answer = said in office hours Yellow highlight = getting more detail 
 
 
Cirrhosis- 7 questions 
 
●	What is the best confirmatory test to diagnose cirrhosis? 
○	Liver biopsy is the gold standard 
 
 
●	What are physical exam findings for hepatic encephalopathy? 
○	Hepatic encephalopathy is the neuropsychiatric manifestation of liver disease w neurotoxic effects of pneumonia that can result in 
■	asterixis - flapping tremors 
 
■	A...
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ABFM CKSA 22-23 questions with answers 2024/2025 passed
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ABFM CKSA 22-23A 56-year-old male with a history of hepatitis C cirrhosis is admitted to the hospital with GI bleeding. The patient has been stable, taking only furosemide and spironolactone. Upper GI endoscopy confirms variceal bleeding and the gastroenterologist performs appropriate variceal banding. A nurse calls you because laboratory studies ordered in the emergency department reveal a serum ammonia level of 120 µg/dL (N 39-90). The patient has no signs of confusion, insomnia, or decreased...
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ATI MedSurg Complex Elimination Practice Questions and Answers (latest Update), 100% Correct, Download to Score A (Answer Key Deeply Explained)
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ATI MedSurg Complex Elimination Practice Questions and Answers (latest Update), 100% Correct, Download to Score A (Answer Key Deeply Explained)-. Which data will the nurse monitor in relation to the 4+ pitting edema assessed in a patient with cirrhosis? 
a.	Hemoglobin 
b.	Temperature 
c.	Activity level 
d.	Albumin level 
 		2. Which topic is most important to include in patient teaching for a 41-year-old patient diagnosed with early alcoholic cirrhosis? 
a.	Maintaining good nutrition 
b.	Avoidin...
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NUR 212 MIDTERM EXAM -With 100% Verified & Revised Answers (NEW) 2023.
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NUR 212 MIDTERM EXAM -With 100% Verified & Revised Answers (NEW) 2023. 
M4.5 Midterm Exam 
1.1M4EN212 
1.66 points possible (graded, results hidden) 
Which nursing intervention is a priority for the client with Graves’ disease who presents 
to the emergency room with a high fever, extreme tachycardia, sweating, abdominal pain 
and altered mental status? 
Begin infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. 
Administer thyroid hormone medications. 
Apply a hypothermia blanket or ice packs. 
submitted 
Submi...
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