Hiv labs - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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NURS 663 Exam 1: Key Points 2023 with complete solution
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NURS 663 Exam 1: Key Points 2023 with complete solution 
 
Exam 1: Key Points Depressive Disorders 
Depressive Disorder Due to Another Medical Condition 
•	Prominent & persistent disturbance in mood 
•	Characterized by: 
o	Depressed mood 
o	Diminished interest or pleasure in all or almost all activities 
•	Evidence is found from the history, physical examination, or lab findings of: 
o	Disturbance is the direct pathophysiological consequence of another medical condition 
•	Can mimic or m...
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MDC 1 COMPLETE STUDY GUIDE TEST.
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MDC 1 COMPLETE STUDY GUIDE TEST. 
 
 
- Temp/warmth 
- Low/High CBC 
- Increased HR 
- Low BP 
- Increased respiratory rate 
- Redness - CORRECT ANSWER Infection S/S 
 
- Rotate patient every 2 hours 
- Reposition 
- Padding 
- PROM 
- Barrier cream 
- Keep dry 
- Move using a lifting device - CORRECT ANSWER Nursing interventions to decrease risk of pressure injuries 
 
CD4 will be lower not less than 200 
CD8 will be normal - CORRECT ANSWER HIV labs 
 
CD4 will be less than 200 
CD8 will be inc...
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CMN 577 Unit 2 Mcphee Aging Exam with Verified Answers| 100% Correct| 100% Score
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CMN 577 Unit 2 Mcphee Aging Exam with Verified Answers| 100% 
Correct| 100% Score 
Body weight peaks by the ___ and ____ decade and then gradually declines at a rate of 1-2 kg per 
decade. - 5th and 6th 
When is weight loss regarded as "clinically significant"? - when it exceeds 5% or ore of usual body 
weight over a 6-12 month period 
What are the most common causes of weight loss? (3) - 1. cancer 
2. GI disorders 
3. Dementia or depression 
Once weight loss is established, what "tools" can...
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RNC OB Part 1: Factors Affecting Fetus and Newborn || with Accurate Answers.
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300 correct answers PreE is present when SBP is > 140 and DBP is greater than 90 and proteinuria is greater than _______mg per 24 hours (or 1g/L on dipstick) 
 
Proteinuria correct answers Patient may be considered preeclamptic in absence of ____________ if she has headache, visual disturbances, RUQ pain, or other abnormal labs 
 
3 correct answers CHTN in pregnancy is HTN present before 20th week gestation or perists after ___ months postpartum 
 
Vertical correct answers Most infants infect...
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MDC 1 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS|GUARANTEED QUIZZES|VERIFIED & UPDATED 100%
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MDC 1 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS 
MDC 1 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS|GUARANTEED QUIZZES|VERIFIED & UPDATED 100% 
 
 
- Temp/warmth 
- Low/High CBC 
- Increased HR 
- Low BP 
- Increased respiratory rate 
- Redness - Accurate AnswerInfection S/S 
 
- Rotate patient every 2 hours 
- Reposition 
- Padding 
- PROM 
- Barrier cream 
- Keep dry 
- Move using a lifting device - Accurate AnswerNursing interventions to decrease risk of pressure injuries 
 
CD4 will be lower not less than 200 
CD8 will be normal - Acc...
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Virology and Mycology questions and answers graded A+ 2024
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Virology and Mycology 
Viruses - correct answer Obligate intracellular parasites 
Require living mammalion cells to grow and multiply 
They use the cells replication structures to reproduce 
They are released by buddig from, leaking out of, or rupturig the host cell 
 
Virology Labs - correct answer Keep several different types of cell cultures to grow viruses for identification 
Require a significant amount of lab space 
Most labs do not provide full service 
Usually provide rapid virology te...
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PAEA OBGYN EOR Topics questions and answers latest 2023
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PAEA OBGYN EOR Topics questions and answers latest 2023 
1. G2 P1001 
2. G4 P1111 
3. G3 P2103 
1. currently pregnant, 1 term delivery, 1 living child 
2. currently pregnant, 1 term delivery, 1 preterm delivery, 1 abortion/miscarriage, 1 living child (cannot tell if it is term or preterm child by formula) 
3. currently pregnant, twins at term, 1 at preterm, 3 living children 
 
G (# pregnancies) 
T (# term deliveries at 37 weeks or more including stillbirths) 
P (# preterm deliveries at 20-37 we...
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NURS 5315 UTA Exam 2
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HIV EIA (3rd generation immunoassay) - can use urine, saliva, or serum (most 
accurate), need to wait until 12 weeks post exposure to see antibodies, >99% 
accurate 
4th generation immunoassay- "gold standard" 
measures P24 antigen 
can test 10 days post exposure 
Mast cell - Cellular bags of granules located in loose connective tisssue close to 
blood vessels. Activation initiates inflammatory process. 
Histamine - Causes vasodilation, increases vascular permeability, increases blood 
flow...
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AGACNP 106 Board Exam Latest Questions And Answers 2023 Assured A+.
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AGACNP 106 Board Exam Latest Questions And Answers 2023 Assured A+. 
Telangiectasia is associated with? differentials? - Correct Answer-spider veins assoc 
with rosacea, liver dz, 
scleroderma, lupus, raynauds, corticosteroids 
differential: PVD, PE (hemosiderans staining) 
type 1 error - Correct Answer-false POSITIVE =1 
incorrectly rejecting the TRUE null hypothesis which is true 
type 2 error - Correct Answer-false NEGATIVE= 2 
failing to reject a null hypothesis which is false 
mandate to pr...
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VATI Pharm, Pharmacology 2019 ATI, RN VATI Pharmacology 2019, Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam Bank.Q&A.
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VATI Pharm, Pharmacology 2019 ATI, RN VATI Pharmacology 2019, Pharmacology ATI Proctored Exam Bank.Q&A. 
 
A nurse is providing teaching to a pt prescribed cipro what is an adverse effect the nurse should include in the teaching? ANS- phototoxicity. 
avoid direct sunlight, wear sunglasses and protective clothing. 
 
discontinue ASAP is phototoxicity occurs. 
 
Tendon rupture is another adverse effect 
 
a nurse is giving diclofenac sodium to a pt with chronic bursitis which of the following a...
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