Prophylaxis treatment - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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HESI Pharm Review Questions
- Exam (elaborations) • 34 pages • 2023
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1. The practical nurse interprets the client’s PPD as a positive skin test. Which drug 
is considered the primary prophylaxis for a client exposed to active tuberculosis? 
a. Isoniazid 
b. Rifampin 
c. Acyclovir 
d. Griseofulvin 
Rationale: 
Isoniazid is highly specific for Mycobacterium tuberculosis and is the 
primary drug of choice for clients with positive PPD skin tests. 
2. Phenazopyridine is commonly prescribed for clients with urinary tract infections 
(UTI). Which statement by the pra...
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NU 641 Quiz 3 Exam Questions with Correct Answers
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NU 641 Quiz 3 Exam Questions with Correct Answers 
Nicotine potentiates - ANSWER gastric aggressive factors 
 
Nicotine increases - ANSWER Heart rate and BP and vasoconstriction 
 
stepwise escalation of pain management - ANSWER - non-opiates 
- increased dose of non-opiates 
- opiates as tolerated 
 
Clinical characteristic of medication overuse for headaches is - ANSWER headache returns once medication wears off 
 
acute treatment of migraines - ANSWER NSAID...
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Phlebotomy Technician NHA EXAM 3 Questions and Answers 100% Pass
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Phlebotomy Technician NHA EXAM 3 
Questions and Answers 100% Pass 
A phlebotomy technician should identify that HIPAA protects which of the following 
rights as part of the patient care partnership? - Correct Answer ️️ -privacy 
For which of the following conditions does emergency first aid treatment include 
maintaining an open Airway, controlling bleeding, and keeping the patient warm until 
help arrives? - Correct Answer ️️ -shock 
A phlebotomy technician is working with a patient who...
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NURS 6630 / NURS6630 Final Exam Questions With 100% Correct Answers Latest Update 2024 (GRADED)
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A patient diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder has been 
taking a high-dose SSRI and is participating in therapy twice a week. 
He reports an inability to carry out responsibilities due to consistent 
interferences of his obsessions and compulsions. The PMHNP knows 
that the next step would be which of the following? 
Selected Answer: B. 
Decrease his SSRI and add an MAOI. 
 Question 2 
0 out of 1 points 
Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating 
patients ...
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ABFM In training exam 2023 with 100% correct answers
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Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP), what meds, and what do you have check first? - correct answer -Emtricitabine/tenofovir 
gotta check Hep B first 
-apparently they kill hep B too, so if you suddenly stop the med, then reactivated hep B can lead to liver disease 
 
entry to balloon time for PCI! - correct answer -120 minutes 
 
time limit from onset of MI to balloon time - correct answer -should get it done w/in 12 hours 
 
Absolute contraindications to Fibrinolysis - correct answer -Previous hemo...
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TEST BANK - LITTLE AND FALACE'S DENTAL MANAGEMENT OF THE MEDICALLY COMPROMISED PATIENT 9TH EDITION (VERSION 2023/2024) | COMPLETE GUIDE | ALL CHAPTERS 1-34.
- Exam (elaborations) • 117 pages • 2023
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TEST BANK - LITTLE AND FALACE'S DENTAL MANAGEMENT OF THE MEDICALLY COMPROMISED PATIENT 9TH EDITION (VERSION 2023/2024) | COMPLETE GUIDE | ALL CHAPTERS 1-34. 
Chapter 01: Patient Evaluation and Risk Assessment 
Little: Dental Management of the Medically Compromised Patient, 9th Edition 
MULTIPLE CHOICE 
1. Elective dental care should be deferred for patients with severe, uncontrolled hypertension, 
meaning that the blood pressure is greater than or equal to mm Hg. 
a. 200/140 
b. 180/140 
c. 180...
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GCU ANP-650 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION 2023
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GCU ANP-650 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION 2023 
 
ST-segment elevation and deep, wide Q waves in leads II, III, and aVF are a sign of which of the following? 
•	Acute inferior MI 
 
•	Old inferior MI 
 
•	Anterior wall ischemia 
 
•	Subendocardial ischemia without necrosis 
 
 
 
 
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What is the treatment for a patient with a septic pressure ulcer? 
•	Surgical consult for debridement and antibiotics 
 
•	Hydrotherapy 
 
•	Debridement only 
 
•	Specialized a...
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Test Bank For Primary Care Medicine Office Evaluation and Management of the Adult Patient 8th Edition By Allan Goroll 9781496398116 Chapter 1-239 Complete Guide .
- Exam (elaborations) • 423 pages • 2023
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Test Bank For Primary Care Medicine Office Evaluation and Management of the Adult Patient 8th Edition By Allan Goroll 8116, 4 , 8123, 2 
 
1 The Purpose and Practice of Primary Care 
 
2 Selection and Interpretation of Diagnostic Tests 
 
3 Health Maintenance and the Role of Screening 
 
4 Estimating and Communicating Risk and Prognosis 
 
5 Choosing among Treatment Options 
 
6 Immunization 
 
7 Screening for HIV Infection 
 
8 Evaluation of Chronic Fatigue 
 
9 Evaluation of Weight Loss 
 
10 ...
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Final Exam: NR 567 / NR567 (Latest 2023/ 2024 Update) Advanced Pharmacology for the AGACNP Exam Review | Weeks 5-8 Covered| Questions and Verified Answers- Chamberlain
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Final Exam: NR 567 / NR567 (Latest 2023/ 2024 Update) Advanced Pharmacology for the AGACNP Exam Review | Weeks 5-8 Covered| Questions and Verified Answers- Chamberlain 
 
 
 
QUESTION 
 Sedative-hypnotic agents uses 
 
Answer: 
 
 
 
QUESTION 
 First line medication for anxiety and insomnia 
 
Answer: Lorazepam (Benzo) 
 
 
 
QUESTION 
 First line appropriate medication to utilize for situational anxiety disorder- 
 
 
Answer: Lorazepam (Benzo) 
 
 
 
QUESTION 
 First line for an uncoopera...
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ABFM exam 2023 with 100% correct answers
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post exposure prophylaxis for meningitis - correct answer -- indicated to any close contact regardless of immunization 
 
- prophylaxis 
-Cipro 500 mg one time 
- azithromycin 500 mg once 
- Rocephin 250 mg IM once 
- rifampin 600 mg twice daily x 2 days 
- treatment should begin as soon as possible after exposure, no later than 14 days 
 
Bisphosphonate therapy s/e - correct answer -osteonecrosis of the jaw 
esophagitis 
esophageal ulceration 
hypocalcaemia 
 
speech and language delay in...
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