Packrat renal exam - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

PACKRAT Family Med Questions and Answers 2024 A+ Graded. 1. A 52 year-old female comes to the office because of black stools for the past 3 days. She is afebrile and she has no pertinent physical examination abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study? A. Stool for occult blood B. Stool cultures C. Sigmoidoscopy D. Abdominal CT scan: answer- (c) A. Occult bleeding, as evidenced by the patient's history of black stools, is initially verified by a...

PACKRAT Family Med Questions and Answers 2024 A+ Graded. 1. A 52 year-old female comes to the office because of black stools for the past 3 days. She is afebrile and she has no pertinent physical examination abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study? A. Stool for occult blood B. Stool cultures C. Sigmoidoscopy D. Abdominal CT scan: answer- (c) A. Occult bleeding, as evidenced by the patient's history of black stools, is initially verified by a ...

PACKRAT Family Med Questions and Answers 2024 A+ Graded. 1. A 52 year-old female comes to the office because of black stools for the past 3 days. She is afebrile and she has no pertinent physical examination abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study? A. Stool for occult blood B. Stool cultures C. Sigmoidoscopy D. Abdominal CT scan: answer- (c) A. Occult bleeding, as evidenced by the patient's history of black stools, is initially verified by a ...

Packrat - Renal Exam with Complete Solutions 1. Clinical Therapeutics/Urology/Renal A 7 year-old boy wets the bed on most nights. Which of the following is the preferred pharmacological agent to decrease the incidence of bed wetting episodes? A. Imipramine (Tofranil) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Pramipexole (Mirapex) D. Hyoscyamine (Urised) CORRECT ANSWER-(c) A. Imipramine is an anti-cholinergic and when given before bedtime has been shown to decrease the incidence of bed wetting. (u) B...

Family Med PACKRAT Exam Practice Questions and Answers A 52 year-old female comes to the office because of black stools for the past 3 days. She is afebrile and she has no pertinent physical examination abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic study? A. Stool for occult blood B. Stool cultures C. Sigmoidoscopy D. Abdominal CT scan - ANSWER-(c) A. Occult bleeding, as evidenced by the patient's history of black stools, is initially verified by a pos...

PACKRAT 5 Exam Questions with Correct A 6 y/o male presents w/ hemarthrosis of the L knee. Coag studies: PT 12.5s (normal12- 14 sec), INR 1.0, aPTT 58s (normal 18-28 sec), platelet 430,000/microliter (normal 150,000-450,000/microliter), & bleeding time 4m (normal 2-12m). Which is the best tx option for this pt? A. Desmopressin acetate B. Corticosteroids C. Vitamin K D. Cryoprecipitate - Answer-(u) A. Desmopressin acetate is indicated in von Willebrand's disease, which presents with a prol...

Neurology PACKRAT Exam - Questions, Answers and Explanations (Complete Solutions) History & Physical/Neurology A 73 year-old male presents to the clinic with his wife. His wife has noticed that he has developed a resting tremor in his right hand and a shuffling gait over the last year. What finding on physical examination would support your suspected diagnosis? A. Chorea B. Dystonia C. Masked facies D. Hyperreflexia Explanation The patient symptoms are consistent with Parkinsonism. Physical ex...

1. Clinical Therapeutics/Urology/Renal A 7 year-old boy wets the bed on most nights. Which of the following is the preferred pharmacological agent to decrease the incidence of bed wetting episodes? A. Imipramine (Tofranil) B. Phenytoin (Dilantin) C. Pramipexole (Mirapex) D. Hyoscyamine (Urised) - Answer (c) A. Imipramine is an anti-cholinergic and when given before bedtime has been shown to decrease the incidence of bed wetting. (u) B. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant and is not used in en...

PACKRAT Surgery Exam Questions and Answers All C An 18-year-old patient has a tibia/fibula fracture following a motorcycle crash. Twelve hours later the patient presents with increased pain despite adequate doses of analgesics and immobilization. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. avascular necrosis B. myositis ossificans C. compartment syndrome D. reflex sympathetic dystrophy - Answer-EXPLANATIONS: (u) A. Avascular necrosis occurs primarily in muscles post-traumatical...