What causes tachycardia Study guides, Class notes & Summaries

HESI Pharmacology Exit Exam with NGN 1 . A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before administering this prescription? A) Penicillins. B) Aminoglycosides. C) Erythromycins. D) Sulfonamides. A) Penicillins. Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicilli...

Rasmussen College MDC 3 FINAL Exam | 100% Correct Answers | Latest 2024 Version 1. The nurse is arriving at the beginning of her shift and has taken report on four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the nurse see first? A. A client with hypertension with a blood pressure of 172/92 mm Hg. B. A client with pain that is two days postoperative from a prostatectomy. C. A client ready for discharge education after treatment of an acute kidney injury. D. A client with a histo...

Unit 1,2,3,4 & 5: MN 566/ MN566 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A Unit 5 Q: Which of the following medications can cause hyperlipidemia? A. High Dose Diuretics B. Exercising 30 minutes every day C. Hyperthyroidism D. Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker Answer: A. High Dose Diuretics Q: In which patient do premature ventricular contractions NOT need to be treated? A. Kelly, a 25-year-old female with an allergy to bee stings B. Mary, ...

Midterm Exam: MN 566/ MN566 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A Q: Which of the following medications can cause hyperlipidemia? A. High Dose Diuretics B. Exercising 30 minutes every day C. Hyperthyroidism D. Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker Answer: A. High Dose Diuretics Q: In which patient do premature ventricular contractions NOT need to be treated? A. Kelly, a 25-year-old female with an allergy to bee stings B. Mary, a 50-y...

NUR 221 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS |VERIFIED ANSWERS with imagery illustrations..LATEST UPDATE Absent FHR variability amplitude range undetected Minimal FHR variability 1-5 bpm Moderate FHR variability 6-25 bpm what we want Marked FHR variability >25 bpm What is Leopolds maneuver? Purpose: to determine presentation and position of fetus and aid in knowing where to position FHR monitor Method: explain procedure to pt, have woman empty bladder, wash hands, stan...

What are the 6 general principles of psychopharmacological treatment? Safety Tolerability Efficacy Practicality Treatment accessibility Treatment compliance Pharmacokinetics How the drug moves in the body. (ex. Where is it absorbed? How and where is it metabolized? Where is it excreted?) Pharmacodynamics What the drug does to the body. (consider mechanism of action) Define First-generation antipsychotics Referred to as Typical Antipsychotics. Most have strong bond w...

What is the most reliable method of confirming and montioring correct placement of an ET tube? - Answer- Continuous waveform capnography The upper airway consists of... - Answer- Nose, Mouth, Jaw, Oral Cavity, Pharynx, and Larynx No gas exchange occurs here __________, it's called ____________. - Answer- Nose to terminal bronchioles, anatomical dead space. (2ml/kg of inspired tidal volume) They conduct airflow towards gas exchange units. Crycothyroid membrane - Answer- between thyroid ...

dysrhythmia aka arrhythmia - Correct answer - abnormal cardiac rhythms which can cause disturbances of: rate, rhythm, or both rate and rhythm how are dysrhythmias identified? - Correct answer Electrographic Waveform Analysis (ECG) what controls the rate and rhythm of the heartbeat? - Correct answer the heart's electrical system explain the heart's electrical system - Correct answer Each electrical signal (impulse) begins in a group of cells called the sinus node or sinoatrial (SA...

Georgette's LMR PMHNP Certification Exam What drugs should be avoided with Kava Kava? - Alprazolam CNS depressants (e.g., phenobarbital, zolpidem) Cultural Formulation Interview perform what 3 functions? - Clarify meaning of illness Empower the patient Validate symptoms within cultural context What does a cultural formulation interview do? - cultural assessment What is the normal range for TSH? - 0.5 - 5.0 mu/L What are lab values in Hyperthyroidism - Decreased TSH Increased T...

AANP FNP certification Questions With 100% ACCURATE Answers 2023/2024| VERIFIED. All diastolic murmurs are pathological. Murmurs Grades I-barely II-audible III- clearly audible. IV- first time thrill V-Steth edge VI-entire steth. EXAM - Answer - III first time audible, IV first time thrill Fundal height 12 weeks - Answer - Fundal Height 12 weeks above symphysis pubis. EXAM Fundus 16 weeks between symphysis pubis and umbilicus. Fundus at 20 weeks is at umbilicus. 2 cm more of less...

Epinephrine is used for ___ ___ and ___ ___ - ANSWER cardiac arrest, allergic reaction Adrenergic Stimulating drugs - ANSWER epinephrine What system is epinephrine stimulating? - ANSWER SNS What are the adverse effects of epinephrine? - ANSWER tremors, agitation, tachycardia, urinary retention, hypertension, decreased renal perfusion When determining the difference between urinary retention and decreased urinary perfusion, what should you do? - ANSWER palpate the bladder Before administer...

Exam 2: NR324/ NR 324 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Adult Health I | Complete Guide with Questions and Verified Answers | Weeks 4-6 Covered| 100% Correct | Grade A - Chamberlain Q: erythrocytosis too many red blood cells Q: leukocytopenia Answer: deficiency of white blood cells Q: leukocytosis Answer: too many white blood cells Q: thrombocytopenia Answer: not enough platelets Q: thrombocytosis Answer: too many platelets Q: assessments t...