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NSG 5003 MIDTERM EXAM 3 – QUESTION AND ANSWERS
Question 1 (2 points) 
 
In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of: 
 
Question 1 options: 
 
a) 
Bacterial sinusitis 
 
b) 
Allergic rhinitis 
 
c) 
Drug abuse 
 
d) 
Skull fracture 
Save 
 
Question 2 (2 points) 
 
Your patient complains of a feeling of heaviness in the lower legs daily. You note varicosities, edema, and dusky color of both ankles and feet. Which of the following is the m...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 70 pages •
Question 1 (2 points) 
 
In examination of the nose, the clinician observes gray, pale mucous membranes with clear, serous discharge. This is most likely indicative of: 
 
Question 1 options: 
 
a) 
Bacterial sinusitis 
 
b) 
Allergic rhinitis 
 
c) 
Drug abuse 
 
d) 
Skull fracture 
Save 
 
Question 2 (2 points) 
 
Your patient complains of a feeling of heaviness in the lower legs daily. You note varicosities, edema, and dusky color of both ankles and feet. Which of the following is the m...
NSG 5003 MIDTERM EXAM 2 – QUESTION AND ANSWERS
Question :	What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise? 
 
 	Student Answer:	 	 Acoustic trauma and noise induced 
 
 			 High frequency and low frequency 
 
 		 	 High frequency and acoustic trauma 
 
 			 Noise induced and low frequency 
 
 	Instructor Explanation:	Two types of hearing loss are associated with noise: (1) acoustic trauma or instantaneous damage caused by a single sharply rising wave of sound (e.g., gunfire), and (2) noise-induced hearing loss, the more common t...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 12 pages •
Question :	What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise? 
 
 	Student Answer:	 	 Acoustic trauma and noise induced 
 
 			 High frequency and low frequency 
 
 		 	 High frequency and acoustic trauma 
 
 			 Noise induced and low frequency 
 
 	Instructor Explanation:	Two types of hearing loss are associated with noise: (1) acoustic trauma or instantaneous damage caused by a single sharply rising wave of sound (e.g., gunfire), and (2) noise-induced hearing loss, the more common t...
NSG 5003 MIDTERM EXAM 1 – QUESTION AND ANSWERS
What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action potential? 
Question 1 options: 
	Potassium gates open and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive 
	Sodium gates open and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. 
	Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative. 
	Potassium gates close, allowing sodiu...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 17 pages •
What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action potential? 
Question 1 options: 
	Potassium gates open and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive 
	Sodium gates open and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. 
	Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell to change the membrane potential from positive to negative. 
	Potassium gates close, allowing sodiu...
NSG 5003 FINAL EXAM 2 – QUESTION AND ANSWERS
1. It is important to not dilate the eye if ____ is suspected. 
 Cataract 
 Macular degeneration 
 Acute closed-angle glaucoma 
 Chronic open-angle glaucoma 
 
Question 2. 2. An 18-year-old female patient presents with repeated urinary tract infections. She has no risk factors in her history, and her physical examination is unremarkable. She also has a normal pelvic exam. Which of the following should be obtained if anatomic abnormalities are suspected? 
 Ultras...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 53 pages •
1. It is important to not dilate the eye if ____ is suspected. 
 Cataract 
 Macular degeneration 
 Acute closed-angle glaucoma 
 Chronic open-angle glaucoma 
 
Question 2. 2. An 18-year-old female patient presents with repeated urinary tract infections. She has no risk factors in her history, and her physical examination is unremarkable. She also has a normal pelvic exam. Which of the following should be obtained if anatomic abnormalities are suspected? 
 Ultras...
NSG 5003 FINAL EXAM 1- QUESTION AND ANSWERS
Question 1 (5 points) 
 
Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? 
Question 1 options: 
 
Lysosomes 
 
Peroxisomes 
 
Ribosomes 
 
Oxyhydrosomes 
Question 2 (5 points) 
 
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria? 
Question 2 options: 
 
Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. 
 
Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosp...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 19 pages •
Question 1 (5 points) 
 
Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction? 
Question 1 options: 
 
Lysosomes 
 
Peroxisomes 
 
Ribosomes 
 
Oxyhydrosomes 
Question 2 (5 points) 
 
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria? 
Question 2 options: 
 
Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis. 
 
Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosp...
NSG 5002 FINAL EXAM – QUESTION WITH ANSWERS
As patients that entrust our care to another individual, we always expect honesty to avoid leading us down a deceptive pathway in our healthcare decisions. Adherence to which principle compels providers to be truthful? 
Question 1 options: 
 
a) 	Fidelity 
 
 
b) 	Veracity 
 
 
c) 	Self-reflection 
 
 
d) 	Finance 
 
Save 
Question 2 (2.75 points) 
 
What purpose does the principle of fidelity serve in the provider/patient relationship? 
Question 2 options: 
 
a) 	Ensures that patients re...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 41 pages •
As patients that entrust our care to another individual, we always expect honesty to avoid leading us down a deceptive pathway in our healthcare decisions. Adherence to which principle compels providers to be truthful? 
Question 1 options: 
 
a) 	Fidelity 
 
 
b) 	Veracity 
 
 
c) 	Self-reflection 
 
 
d) 	Finance 
 
Save 
Question 2 (2.75 points) 
 
What purpose does the principle of fidelity serve in the provider/patient relationship? 
Question 2 options: 
 
a) 	Ensures that patients re...
NSG 3370 STUDY GUIDE – QUESTION AND ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATIONS
1. During pregnancy, dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises concerns of: 
peripartum cardiomyopathy 
Explanation: 
Dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises concerns of possible infection, asthma, pulmonary embolus, or peripartum cardiomyopathy. 
2. The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels is the: 
mediastinum 
Explanation: 
T...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 71 pages •
1. During pregnancy, dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises concerns of: 
peripartum cardiomyopathy 
Explanation: 
Dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises concerns of possible infection, asthma, pulmonary embolus, or peripartum cardiomyopathy. 
2. The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels is the: 
mediastinum 
Explanation: 
T...
NSG 6430 WEEK 7 KNOWLEDGE CHECK
Question 1 (1 point) 
 
Kristin presents for an office visit due to an abnormal discharge with a fishy odor. What is the likely diagnosis for Kristin based on her presenting symptoms? correct 
Question 1 options: 
 	Candidiasis 
 	Condyloma Accuminata 
 	Bacterial Vaginosis 
 	Cervicitis 
Question 2 (1 point) 
 
Which organism causes 90% of vulvovaginal candidiasis episodes in women? 
Question 2 options: correct 
 	Candida tropicalis 
 	Candida albicans 
 	Candida glabrata 
 	Candida krusei
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 3 pages •
Question 1 (1 point) 
 
Kristin presents for an office visit due to an abnormal discharge with a fishy odor. What is the likely diagnosis for Kristin based on her presenting symptoms? correct 
Question 1 options: 
 	Candidiasis 
 	Condyloma Accuminata 
 	Bacterial Vaginosis 
 	Cervicitis 
Question 2 (1 point) 
 
Which organism causes 90% of vulvovaginal candidiasis episodes in women? 
Question 2 options: correct 
 	Candida tropicalis 
 	Candida albicans 
 	Candida glabrata 
 	Candida krusei
NSG 6001 WEEK 2 QUIZ – QUESTION AND ANSWERS
•	 
•	A patient develops a dry, non-productive cough and is diagnosed with bronchitis. Several days later, the cough becomes productive with mucoid sputum. What may be prescribed to help with symptoms? 
•	Antibiotic therapy 
•	Antitussive medication 
•	Bronchodilator treatment 
•	Mucokinetic agents 
Answer: B 
•	A primary care provider is performing a Tzanck test to evaluate possible herpes simplex lesions. To attain accurate results, the provider will: 
•	Blanch the lesions whil...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 2 pages •
•	 
•	A patient develops a dry, non-productive cough and is diagnosed with bronchitis. Several days later, the cough becomes productive with mucoid sputum. What may be prescribed to help with symptoms? 
•	Antibiotic therapy 
•	Antitussive medication 
•	Bronchodilator treatment 
•	Mucokinetic agents 
Answer: B 
•	A primary care provider is performing a Tzanck test to evaluate possible herpes simplex lesions. To attain accurate results, the provider will: 
•	Blanch the lesions whil...
NSG 6435 WEEK 3 TEST PREP
What age do children usually begin receiving the HPV vaccine? 
 
8 years 
 
11 years 
 
13 years 
 
15 years 
	 
11 years is the age most providers begin administering the HPV vaccine. 
 
When can a child stop using a booster seat in the car? 
 
When the child is at least 4’9” tall. 
 
When the child is at least 5’ tall. 
 
When the child is at least 4’ tall. 
 
When the child is at least 3’ tall. 
A child should be at least 4’9” before discontinuing the use of the booster ...
- Exam (elaborations)
- • 6 pages •
What age do children usually begin receiving the HPV vaccine? 
 
8 years 
 
11 years 
 
13 years 
 
15 years 
	 
11 years is the age most providers begin administering the HPV vaccine. 
 
When can a child stop using a booster seat in the car? 
 
When the child is at least 4’9” tall. 
 
When the child is at least 5’ tall. 
 
When the child is at least 4’ tall. 
 
When the child is at least 3’ tall. 
A child should be at least 4’9” before discontinuing the use of the booster ...