AMT MT Study Guide Questions and Answers Already Passed

The three major phases of laboratory testing that a QA program should evaluate include a. mean, standard deviation, and coefficient of variation. b. pre-op, operative, and post-op. c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical. d. outpatient, inpatient, and non-patient. c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical. The process by which test results achieve the same high levels of accuracy and precision that can be reproduced across measurement systems, laboratories and time is referred to as a. laboratory process control. b. laboratory calibration. c. laboratory standardization. d. laboratory verification. c. laboratory standardization. What characteristics/functions do calibrators have? a. They contain a known amount of analyte being tested. b. They monitor the quality of reagents. c. They monitor the quality of the sample.d. They prevent equipment failure. a. They contain a known amount of analyte being tested. An abrupt demonstrated change in the mean is a a. shift. b. trend. c. variance. d. deviation. a. shift. Qualitative examinations are those that a. qualify for waived testing. b. produce non-numerical results. c. do not require quality control. d. do not require proficiency testing. b. produce non-numerical results. A property of a test that is used to describe its quality (such as accuracy, precision, sensitivity, etc.) is a a. performance characteristic. b. performance enhancement. c. performance verification. d. performance specification. a. performance characteristicUnder CLIA law, the process of testing and adjusting an instrument or test system to establish a correlation between the measured response and the concentration or amount of the substance that is being measuredby the test procedure is a. calibration. b. calibration verification. c. a challenge. d. quality control. a. calibration. What agency determines the complexity of a lab test system? a. CMS b. FDA c. CDC d. OSHA b. FDA Certain moderate complexity microscopy tests (such as urine sediment evaluation and skin scrapings) commonly performed by healthcare providers in the office setting are classified as a. provider moderate complexity tests. b. provider exempt status. c. provider personnel testing.d. provider performed microscopy. d. provider performed microscopy. Policies and procedures that are intended to promote the quality and validity of test data and ensure the reliability and integrity of data generated by analytical laboratories is known as a. CLIA Law. b. Quality Assurance Plan (QAP). c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP). d. Total Quality Management (TQM). c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP). Devices based on electrophoretic principles are used in the clinical laboratory to perform all of the following except to a. measure quantities of various proteins in plasma, urine, and CSF. b. separate enzymes into their component isoenzymes. c. identify antibodies. d. measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum. d. measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum. The chemistry methodology that is based on the fact that substances of clinical interest selectively absorb or emit electromagnetic energy at different wavelengths is a. flourometry.b. atomic absorption. c. spectrophotometry. d. photometry. c. spectrophotometry. Given %T, how is absorbance calculated? a. log %T - 2. b. log %T + 2. c. 2 + log %T. d. 2 - log %T. d. 2 - log %T. Prohibiting recapping of needles is an example of a. a workplace control. b. an engineering control. c. a best practice in the workplace. d. a human resources requirement. a. a workplace control. The majority of all centrifuge accidents result from a. electrical malfunctions. b. faulty mechanisms. c. user error.d. crowded work conditions. c. user error. Material Safety Data Sheets (M.S.D.S.) are now called a. Chemical Safety Sheets. b. Safety Data System. c. Material Data System. d. Safety Data Sheets. d. Safety Data Sheets. In order for a laboratory to handle TB sputum and TB materials, the laboratory must operate at a a. biosafety level of 2+ or 3. b. biosafety level 4. c. location where air exchange is continuous. d. location where fume hood exhausts are monitored daily. a. biosafety level of 2+ or 3. What is the molarity of an unknown HCL solution with a specific gravity of 1.10 and an assay percentage of 18.5%? (Atomic weights: H = 1.00794, Cl = 35.4527) a. 203.5 M b. 36.5 M c. 5.6 M d. 5.2 M c. 5.6 M1.10 * 0.185 = 0.2035 g/mL 0.2035 g/mL * 1000 = 203.5 g/L Molarity = (g/L) / molecular weight (MW) 203.5 / 36.5 = 5.6 M MCV = HCT * 10/(?) a. MCHC b. MCV c. RBC d. MCH c. RBC A substage lens of the microscope that focuses light on the slide specimen is the a. condenser. b. aperture. c. C-mount. d. diaphragm. a. condenser. The magnification of a microscope is determined by the a. high power objective multiplied by the low power objective.b. thickness of the condenser. c. powers of the eyepiece and objective. d. fine focus adjustment. c. powers of the eyepiece and objective. You have just completed morning rounds when you realize that you have an unlabeled tube in your tray. You are certain you know what patient the tube belongs to. How should you proceed? a. After sorting the tubes you see what specimen is missing, discard the unlabeled tube and go recollect the specimen. b. After sorting the tubes, you see what specimen is missing so label your unlabeled tube with that patient's information. c. Discard the tube and hope know one realizes there is a missing specimen. d. Discard all your tubes and redraw everyone to make sure all the specimens are correct. a. After sorting the tubes you see what specimen is missing, discard the unlabeled tube and go recollect the specimen. You are working in receiving and receive urine specimens with the following labels. Select the label that contains the required labeling elements for a primary specimen. a. Name: Jane DeerbrDOB: 3-6-3brRoom #: 123brCollect time/date: 0550 7/6/13