NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY Final Exam
(121 Questions and Answers for Advanced Pathophysiology)
Ques: 1 What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer? a) Herpes simplex virus type 6 b) Herpes simplex virus type 2 c) Human papillomavirus d) Human immunodeficiency vi...
NR 507 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY Final Exam
(121 Questions and Answers for Advanced Pathophysiology)
Ques: 1 What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer? a) Herpes simplex virus
type 6 b) Herpes simplex virus type 2 c) Human papillomavirus d) Human immunodeficiency virus
Ques: 2 Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma? a) An obstructive airway disease
characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation b) A
pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse
densities on chest x-ray imaging c) A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein,
producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens d) An
obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result
of a surfactant deficiency
Ques: 3 The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as: a) Infectivity b)
Toxigenicity c) Pathogenicity d) Virulence
Ques: 4 Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because: a) Adipose cells contain little
water because fat is water repelling. b) The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of
lean adults. c) The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults.
d) The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Ques: 5 Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long? a) 6 to 8 weeks b) 8 to
12 months c) Until the iron level is normal d) The rest of one’s life
Ques: 6 Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis? a) Obstructive airway disease characterized by
reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation b) Respiratory disease
characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-
ray imaging c) Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous
mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens d) Pulmonary disorder
characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Ques: 7 What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving
toward the oropharynx? a) Nasal turbinates b) Alveolar macrophages c) Cilia d) Irritant receptors on the
nares Ques:
8 As stated in the Frank-Starling law, a direct relationship exists between the of the blood in
the heart at the end of diastole and the of contraction during the next systole. a) Pressure; force
Volume; b) strength Viscosity; c) force Viscosity; strength
Ques: 9 : a) 2 years b) 1 year c) 10 months d) 5 months
Ques: 10 Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin? a) Blood
vessels b) Epithelial cells c) Connective tissue d) Glandular tissue
Ques: 11 Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia? a) Increasing rate
and depth of breathing b) Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction c) Hemoglobin holding more firmly
onto oxygen d) Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin
, Ques: 12 What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges,
spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra? a)
Encephalocele b) Meningocele c) Spina bifida occulta d) Myelomeningocele
Ques: 13 Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance? a) Hypokalemia b)
Hyperkalemia c) Hypocalcemia d) Hypercalcemia
Ques: 14 After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for how many
months? a) 1 to 2 b) 6 to 14 c) 18 to 20 d) 24 to 36
Ques: 15 Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response? a)
Norepinephrine b) Epinephrine c) Cortisol d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Ques: 16 Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process? a)
Neutrophils b) Monocytes c) Eosinophils d) Erythr
Ques: 17 Where are alveolar macrophages found? a) Skin b) Breasts c) Gastrointestinal tract d) Lungs
Ques: 18 Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system? a) Decreased flow
resistance b) Fewer alveoli c) Stiffening of the chest wall d) Improved elastic recoil
Ques: 19 An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which
symptom? a) Intermittent murmur b) Lack of symptoms c) Need for surgical repair d) Triad of congenital
defects Ques:
20 Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor? a) V b) VIII c) IX d) X
Ques: 21 A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called: a) Hemolytic shock b)
Anaphylaxis c) Necrotizing vasculitis d) Systemic erythematosus
Ques: 22 Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? a) Pain is primarily a result of pressure
caused by the tumor. b) Pain indicates the metastasis of a cancer. c) Pain is usually the initial symptom
of cancer. d) Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer.
Ques: 23 What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is
missing? a) Anencephaly b) Myelodysplasia c) Cranial meningocele d) Hydrocephaly
Ques: 24 At birth, which statement is true? a) Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall. b) Gas
exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung. c) Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance
rises. d) Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
Ques: 25 What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment? a) Nausea b) Fatigue
c) Hair loss d) Weight loss
Ques: 26 a The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is
that theya:) Increase neurotransmitter levels within the synapse. b) Increase neurotransmitter levels
in the presynapse. c) Decrease neurotransmitter levels in the postsynapse. d) Decrease
neurotransmitter levels within the synapse.
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