Arthrex Sports IOT Exam (Latest Update) Questions and Answers (Already GRADED A)

What portal looking anterior on right shoulder what structure on left side of screen? glenoid what is the correct number of portals needed for shoulder arthroscopy? how ever many surgeon needs Brainpower Read More which of the following statements are false during a shoulder scope? standard portal will always been in same spot posterior portal for shoulder scope should be placed in the palpable soft spot between _______ and _______ and inferior border of the _______ glenoid, humeral head and RCR if a surgeon cannot reach a certain anatomical target for their anchors with their standard portals, they should use spinal needle to determine location of near accessory portal Arthrex mission statement helping surgeons treat their patients better what structure is the supraspinatus muscle? D, most superior what is the name of the anatomical landmark aka the lighthouse on the anterior aspect of the shoulder coracoid the knee lateral portal is started next to which tendon in the front of the knee? patellar tendon of the major knee ligaments, which one below is not intraarticular LCL what is the anatomical reference for the center tibial footprint of the acl? posterior aspect of anterior lateral horn of meniscus the two bundles of the acl are named for the attachment on tibia. What are their names? AM/PL during a knee scope, which portal should be made first? inferior lateral portal T/F- center of the acl footprint... 43% of the distance true T/F: PCL limits posterior translation of the tibia True which picture shows lateral meniscus D what anatomical landmark is shown in this pic ACL what anatomical landmark is shown medial meniscus what is the Arthrex suggested technique for FiberTape suture positioning for InternalBrace Augmentation? Talus to Fibula, over top of ATFL repair when performing an InternalBrace procedure for augmentation of a Brostrom procedure the surgeon has first placed the 4.75mm SwiveLock anchor into the talus with FiberTape Suture. The FiberTape suture was passed through the tissues and will be secured in the fibula with a 3.5mm SwiveLock anchor. What size drill should the surgeon use in the fibula? 3.4mm True or False: the InternalBrace implant allows for early weight bearing while protecting the ligament repair True True or False: Arthrex recommends using the InternalBrace implant for lateral ankle instability with or without a repair of the ATFL False Surgical repair of the lateral ankle ligament (ATFL) is most often accomplished with what procedure modified brostrom-gould procedure when someone suffers an ankle sprain, what ligament is involved most commonly? anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL) the PowerPick instrument was initially designed to make quick work of: microfracture procedures True or False: The DualWave arthroscopy pump is designed to operate as either an inflow/outflow or an inflow only pump True True or False: Removing the orange cap and plugging in the pressure sensor is the first step in the tubing set-up procedure for the DualWave arthroscopy pump True how many handpicks can be connected and controlled simultaneously by the synergy resection console at one time? 2 the purpose of the shaver boost mode on the DualWave arthroscopy pump is: increase the suction through the shaver the three by-products of ablation are bubbles, light emission and heat what is the largest arthroscopic segment for bipolar RF products shoulder True or False: The PowerRasp attachment is a rotary motion device that creates a smooth, flat surface false when using bipolar RF technology the clinical guidelines include? all of the above The metal detection feature on the SynergyRF Bipolar Ablation System performs what function? suspends power to probe when the tip is in close proximity of scope or metal instruments which shaver oscillation mode provides both aggressive tissue resection and control? EFF The default ablation setting level for the MP90 probe is? 7 the Torpedo shaver has which of the following features? a tapered, conical tip the Bipolar ablation breaks down tissue by the following process? chemical reaction - gently breaks down tissue at the molecular level the main talking points when introducing the synergy UHD4 imaging platform are: all of the above the ClearCut family of burrs provides maximum visibility due to the following: clear shroud/hood which component included in the 2.7mm diameter nano cannula and insertion kit that can be placed over the nano cannula to maintain position during instrument removal? tegaderm transparent film dressing if the DualWave arthroscopy pump height is 1 foot above the operative site, what is the differential between the displayed pressure and the actual pressure? +22 mmHg What type of light engine is in the Synergy UHD4 all in one camera system? LED What are some techniques surgeons use the bipolar RF wands for? all of the above what is the outer diameter of the inflow/outflow sheath for the NanoScope micro arthroscopy system? 2.2 mm what are the sizes of the SwiveLock anchors used in the Achilles SpeedBridge? 4.75mm The Achilles tendon inserts onto what bone? Calcaneus which of the following is NOT an advantage to using SutureTape over round suture for an Achilles tendon mid substance rupture repair? all of the answers are advantages what statement regarding non-operative treatment vs. operative repair of an achilles tendon mid substance rupture is FALSE the rerupture rates are about the same with operative and nonoperative treatment True or False: when performing the knotless Achilles Midsubstance SpeedBridge procedure, the PARS jig is used only once in the proximal stump True what is the size of the anchor sheath for the DX FiberTak anchor with SutureTape? 15mm what Suture fits through the eyelet of the 3.5mm DX Swivelock anchor? all of the above when deploying the DX FiberTak anchor the surgeon should take this action pull in line, straight back what is the advantage of using the DX FiberTak anchor versus the SutureTak anchor when using in conjunction with an ATFL InternlBrace Augmentation smaller footprint/minimal bone removal True or False: Arthrex is the only company that can do a blind tunnel technique True which of the following is a differentiating property of the Fibulock nail from other fibulock nails proximal fixation True or False: The stainless steel and titanium locking distal fibular plates have SutureTape eyelets to incorporate the AiTFL InternalBrace ligament augmentation repair False which of the following describes a weber b fracture fracture at the joint line what year did Arthrex launch the ankle syndesmosis tightrope implant 2005 which of the following plates contain features to accommodate the syndesmosis tightrope implant all of the above true or false: the knotless ankle tightrope implant is made of #5 ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene true which of the following is a currently available size of the fibulock nail 130 x 3.8 mm all of the following statements are true of hip arthroscopy EXCEPT you re-fixate the acetabular labrum towards the joint, not away from it in the Arthrex shoulder story, which product did Arthrex create that provides cortical fixation to address anchor pull-out strength the Corkscrew FT anchor true or false: the FastPass scorpion SL Suture passer requires you to pre-fire the handle to lock the suture in place false what is the name of the triangular portion of the capsule which lies between the supraspinatus and subscapularis rotator interval Arthrex as a company has made a decision to separate medical education functions from sales and marketing. based on our MedEd policies, which statement is appropriate when communicating orally or written with any member of Arthrex medical education I work with a surgeon that has an educational need and would like to come down to Naples for a single day lab true or false: retro-drilling in the knee during an ACL reconstruction is advantageous because it creates a clean hole inside the joint where the graft will contact the bone true fixation when using a PushLock anchor is accomplished by the anchor compresses the suture against the bone, pinching the suture between the two true or false: the angel system protocols are customizable to multiple users at the same account true true or false: when the femoral portion of the GraftLink is passed the surgeon has the option to only partially insert it into the socket. After the tibial portion is passed this option will allow fine tuning of tension in both sockets true When using the meniscal cinch II device, the knot will tighten to the first implant true Femoral ACL footprint The anatomic centrum of the ACL femoral footprint is 43% of the proximal-to-distal length of the lateral, femoral intercondylar notch wall and femoral socket radius. What two muscles come together to form the calf? Gastrocnemius and soleus Pain near the patients heel (calcaneus) may present as what kind of achilles injury? Insertional achilles pathology When performing a PARS achilles repair, how many times is suture passed through the jig? 5 Which meniscus is more C shaped? medial meniscus T/F The medial meniscus is more mobile than the lateral meniscus? False T/F The medial meniscus is larger and more C shaped than the lateral? True What two layers does the MCL have? Superficial and deep What tendon can be located posteriorly when scoping the lateral meniscus? Popliteus What are the zones of the meniscus? peripheral zone (outer one-third) is highly vascular; the central one-third is relatively avascular and the inner one-third is avascular What is a simple stitch for shoulder instability know as? Cerclage stitch What is the most common kind of shoulder dislocation, accounting for almost 95% of all disloactions? Anterior dislocation What does ALPSA stand for when referring to shoulder instability? Anterior Labrum Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion What does SLAP stand for? Superior labrum anterior to posterior What is a Hill-Sachs lesion? fracture or compression of posterior humeral head Where is a Hill-Sachs lesion located? posterior humerus What is the treatment for a Hill-sachs lesion? Remplissage, means "to fill" french origin Which head of the biceps sits in the groove? Long head Which tuberosity of the humerus sits more anterior? Lesser Name the 4 rotator cuff tendons Subscap Supra Infra teres What kind of attachment does the distal bicep tendon have and where is it located? Ribbon-like, radial tuberosity Which condyle has the greater chance of developing early arthritis? Medial by 4 times as much % What are the names of the two coracoclavicular ligaments? Conoid and trapezoid What ligament connects sternum to clavicle? sternoclavicular ligament Name the two ligaments that provide attachments from the acromion to the clavicle and coracoid respectively. Acromioclavicular ligament Coracoacromial ligament What is the best choice of recon for a patient presenting chronic AC injury? Dog bone w/ allograft recon What ligaments make up the biceps sling? Transverse humeral ligament and SGH What types of tissue can the GraftNet™ Autologous Tissue Collector collect? Bone, Cartilage, Soft Tissue True or False: Biocartilage® allograft contains living chondrocytes. False True or False: The JumpStart® bandage generates electricity to kill pathogens including many drug-resistant bacteria True How does RF ablation work? Chemical reaction- gently breaks down tissue T/F You can use labral tape with a 2.4 pushlock False The Knotless SutureTak includes what type of suture? #2 fiberwire coreless What size suture is loaded on the 2mm suturetaks? #1 fiberwire What is the only material labral swivel locks are not available in? Metal What kind of shoulder dislocation is associated with seizures or electric shock:? Posterior Can you add ACD-A to ACP syringe after the fact? No Which blood component is the lightest? Platelets Which suction structure does the rinse mode on the pump affect? Cannula suction To deactivate the DualWave™ Pump ASP Mode should the shaver be activated or deactivated before the rinse mode button on the remote or the foot petal is pressed. Activated At what point should you consider flipping a BTB graft? When graft length exceeds 90-95mm Which portion of one should face away from the tendon and why? Cancellous, it is a much rougher surface and could easily cut the tendon if facing the wrong way What is the name of the intra-articular ridge that separates the two bundles of the ACL? Bifurcate ridge What is the size of a blue fork tip swivel lock? 3.5x8.5 What is the diameter of a swivel lock? Variable diameters x19.1mm What is the size of a corkscrew FT Variable diameters x 14mm What is the size of a 7mm + swivel for tenodesis? variable diameters x 23mm What is the benefit of the FastThread™ having 22% less material than previous BioComposite Screws? Preserve bone-stock Greater interface for healing Biologic delivery When using the BTB Tightrope, how large can your femoral bone block be? No more than 20mm What joint in the body has the most range of motion? Shoulder What are the two drill size options for cannulated AC joint drills? 2.4 and 3.0 Which of the following is not an indication for SCR? -symptomatic rotator cuff -significant bone loss -large, irreparable supraspinatus/infraspinatus tear -minimual to no glenohumeral arthritis -significant bone loss True/False: During the technique for SCR with knotless suturetaks, the sutures are passed through the arthroflex dermal allograft in a mattress fashion with the anchors interconnected. False Proper positioning of the arm during SCR graft tensioning is: 20-40 degrees of abduction True/False: The main difference between a bridging patch graft and the SCR is that the bridging patch graft attaches the graft directly to the remnant of the supraspinatus tendon while the SCR attaches the graft to the superior glenoid. True True/False: In the SCR technique, after you create the double pulley with the suturetak sutures, it is recommended that you cut the suture tails to avoid tangling the sutures. True Which surgeon initially described a remarkably constant avulsion fracture pattern at the proximal-lateral tibia as a result of forced internal rotation Segond True/False: The medial collateral Ligament is repaired after performing the MCL internal brace procedure. False, the IB acts like duct tape and reinforced a sutured repair Which of the following patients could benefit from an ALL recon.? -revision ACLs -hyperlax patients -pivoting athletes -IKDC grade 3 pivot shifts -all the above All of the above What is the difference between a C mount scope and a quick connect? C-mount screws in How many years is a camera head warrantied against autoclave damage? 7 True/False: When using the forked tip swivelock anchor, the surgeon should drill 0.5mm-1.0mm larger than the size of the intended screw. True What are the dimensions of the knotless suturetak? 3.0mm x 12.7mm Which of the following are benefits of cartiform viable osteochondral allografts? -single step procedure -flexible -easily cut to desired size and shape -simple fixation -all the above All of the above What is the shelf life for allosync cancellous chips, cubes, strips and cortical fibers 5 years What is allosync pure made from? Pure cortical fibers What sizes of pure are available? 1cc, 2.5cc, 5cc, 10cc Arthrocell allograft has 3 components that include: A. cell component B. microparticulate C. bone gel (type I collagen) All are in arthrocell Which ligament is connected to the femoral head and aids in stabilizing the femoral head to the hip socket? -Inguinal Ligament -Sacrospinous Ligament -Ligamentum Teres -Transverse Acetabular Ligament Ligamentum teres True/False: The acetabular labrum extends around the entirety of the hip socket False True/False: All hip arthroscopy portals should be made lateral to the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to avoid damage to the Femoral Artery, Vein, and Nerve True The two main portals used in hip arthroscopy are the: anterolateral and midanterior The most commonly damaged nerve during hip arthroscopy is the : Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve All the following are hip flex muscles, except: -rectus femoris -gluteus medius -sartorius -all the above Glute medius List the 5 hip flexors iliacus, psoas, pectineus, rectus femoris, and sartorius. Capsular closure in all settings is still a controversial topic but most surgeons agree that closure should be performed in which of the following surgical scenerios? -T capsulotomy -labral rpair -oversized pincer lesions -for all FAI cases -ischiofemoral impingment T Capsulotomy All of the following pathologies can be address in the peritrochanteric space, except: -external snapping hip -ligamentum teres tear -trochanteric bursitis -gluteus medius tear Ligamentum teres tear Which of the following is a benefit of the TRIM-IT custom hip cannula? -flexible -hands free -allows for minimal inventory -all the above All of the above What 3 bones make up the acetabulum? Ischium, pubis, ilium True/False: Most femoracetabular impingment (FAI) contains mixed pincer/cam lesion: True Which compartment of the hip would you address a CAM lesion? Peripheral What is a CAM deformity of the hip? a bony overgrowth of the femoral neck and is associated with chondral defects on the acetabular transitional zone cartilage, while a pincer deformity is an overgrowth of the acetabulum and is associated with "pinching" on the labrum and labral tear True/False: FAI (Femoroacetabular impingement) can be defined as the repetitive abutment between the femoral neck and acetabular rim that occurs within ranges of motion which cause symptoms True CAM impingement can be defined as: Osteophyte on the top of femoral head *Aspherical femoral head, usually anterosuperior "aspherical extension" Shorthand for camshaft The rock in my shoe Head of femur isn't round so doesn't fit in ball in socket of hip What shape is the articular cartilage of the acetabulum? Horseshoe All the following are functions of the Acetabular Labrum, except: -Serves as an attachment for the ligamentum teres -provides a suction seal to the hip -acts as a shock absorber, with its most thick portion superiorly -adds stability to the hip by deepening the socket Serves as an attachment for the ligamentum teres Which muscle/tendon casues internal snapping of the hip? Iliopsoas Matracell decellularized dermis process used by LifeNet Health for arthroflex dermal allografts removes how much donor DNA? more than 97% TRUE/FALSE: Arthoflex dermal allograft patches are sterile 10-6 True The allograft graftlink technique construct can be made from all the following tendons, except: -Semi T -Gracilis -Tibialis -Palmaris Longus Palmaris Which statement about arthrex amnion products is true? -they are rich in growth factors and collagen that support tissue growth -they act as an adhesion biomechanical barrier to protect tendons and nerves -they reduce inflammation and scarring -they are anti-microbial -all the above All of the above Which of the following is true regarding the allowash XG process? -six step process -final product has SAL10-6 -used by multiple tissue companies -developed by lifenet health -all the above All of the above When referring to knee lower limb alignment, what is the normal Q angle for a female? 17-18 degrees When referring to knee lower limb alignment, what is the normal Q angle for a male? 14 degrees True/False: Arthrex amioin cord is derived from the umbilical cord and can hold a stitch when hydrated. It is eight times thicker than arthrex amnion thin matrix. True What is the necessary graft length when performing an elbow UCL recon? 15-17 cm During an ulnar collateral ligament recon, which portion of the ligament is reconstructed? Anterior The ulnar collateral ligament attaches to what specific structure proximally at the humerus? Medial epicondyle Which nerves needs to be identified during UCL recon medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve Ulnar nerve What nerve lies in close proximity to the inferior aspect of the glenoid? Axillary Which of the following are benefits of the Humeral SuturePlate for proximal humeral fracture? -anatomic design -low profile -chamfered suture eyelets for fiberwire suture -all the above All of the above Most common site for proximal humerus fx? Surgical neck Which statement regarding the MPFL is true? -it inserts on the upper 1/2 (superior) of the patella -it inserts on the lateral femur -it inserts on the lower 1/2 (inferior) of the patella) -it prevents medial subluxation of the patella -all the above It inserts on the upper 1/2 (superior) of the patella The MPFL is the main passive stabilizer against lateral patella displacement. The MPFL is at its tightest in what degree of flexion? 0-30 degrees True/False: valgus alignment of a joint exists when any distal segment of the joint extends lateral to the joint True When seating the AC DogBone Button at the base of the coracoid, the concavity should seat against the coracoid and the orientation line should be in line with the: Arch of the coracoid In what 3 ways can an AC joint recon be done? Arthroscopic, mini-open, open An advantage of our clavicle fracture plate is: low profile, integration of the dog bone button technique for ac joint repair and stainless steel True/False: The ALL is found to act as an important restraint to external rotation of the tibia False According to the surgical technique guide, the tibial 2.4mm guide pin should be placed _______ posterior to gerdy's tubercle and _______ distal to the joint line 22mm, 10mm The Anterolateral Ligament (ALL) of the knee mimics the course of which structure? IT band The posterolateral corner is made up of which ligaments? FCL, Popliteus, and popliteofibular ligament True/False: The origin of the ALL is near the lateral epicondyle and the insertion point is halfway between Gerdy's tubercle and fibular head. True What size suture comes in the PARS kit? #2 fiberwire/suturetape What is the primary purpose of the lavage feature on pump? Assist in maintaining hemostasis, 50% increase in pressure for 20-120 seconds What is the largest market for RF? Shoulder arthroscopy Arthrex owns 85% of this business This muscle-tendon complex is commonly referred to as the "rotator cuff of the hip" Glute medius DBM is availiable in what forms? Paste, putty, gel What is the primary movement the suscapularis muscle supports? Internal rotation of the arm When preparing a standard graftlink graft using a single tendon, the ideal total tendon length before suturing is? 250-270mm What is the shelf life of arthrex amnion matrix? 5 years IOBP can be aminimally invasive procedure used to treat? Bone marrow lesions True/False: When performing an OATS procedure you can bulletize the donor graft once prepared to that it fits with ease into the recipient base True Which size is not available in the autograft OATS 2.0 single-use set? 12mm, we have 6,8,10 What is the ratio of our allosync gel to angel cPRP from bone marrow aspirate when preparing IOBP (IntraOsseous BioPlasty) for application in the knee? 5 to 3 True/False: Osteochondral fragmnets, flaps or grafts in the knee with sufficient bone stock are ideal candidates for fixation with the bio-compression screw True What is the recommended amount of saline, whole blood, or PRP that should be added to a 5cc jar of Pure during mixing? 3cc What are the three components arthrocell is packaged with? Vial of live cells, DBM (cancellous and cortical bone chips/fibers, and a medium containig collagen bone gel What two types of PRP Leukocyte poor and rich List the 3 shaver modes STD, EFF, AGG What kind of shaver is more aggressive, with teeth or full radius? Full radius What is the difference between lavage and rinse mode? Give an example of when to use each. Lavage: 50% increase in pressure for two minutes; aids in homeostasis (bleeding management) Rinse Mode: 30% increase in flow, requires outflow tubing (clear out the cavity and any unwanted debris) If the pump is no at the same horizontal plane as the patient, it should be adjusted how much? 22mmHG per foot up or down How much does outflow reduce consumption by? 20% What is the most common lateral ankle ligament injured? ATFL Name the 3 primary lateral ankle stabalizers ATFL PTFL CFL What nerve is most at risk during an open achilles repair? Sural What size screws fit in a 1/3 tubular? 3.5 cortical or 4.0 cancellous SS anatomic plates accommodate what size screws? 3.5 proximal 2.7 distal TI anatomic plates accommodate what size screws? 3.5 proximal 3.0 distal PEEK stands for? Polyether Ether Ketone T or F: Arthrex suggests that you size down one size for Biocomposite Interference Screws with soft tissue. False What lines the inner surface of all bones? A): Endosteum (B): Periosteum (C): Fascia (D): Collagen Endosteum Name the three sections of all long bones: Epiphysis Diaphysis Metaphysis What attaches muscle to bone? tendons What attaches bone to bone? Ligaments What nerve is potentially at risk during a distal biceps tension slide repair? Posterior intraosseous nerve Which of the following are true regarding Allosync (check all that appy): (A): It is osteoconductive and osteoinductive (B): It resists irrigation because of the Reverse Phase Medium (C): It requires 15 minutes thawing time (D): It can be combined with ACP/PRP and Cancellous Chips A, B, D Set time for quick set? 8 minutes What are the available sizes of fibulock? 3.0 and 3.8 diameters 130 and 180mm lengths 2.7 screws in distal holes What size screws go in a 1/3 tubular plate 3.5 cortical 4.0 cancellous