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NR 602 Final questions with correct answers.

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NR 602 Final questions with correct answers.

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  • October 22, 2024
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NR 602 Final questions with correct answers
What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS (atypical
squamous cells of undetermined significance) pap result with a positive
high-risk HPV 16 co-test in a 26-year-old woman without a history of
abnormal Pap smears? Correct Answer-Colposcopy


A well woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the
following Correct Answer-A general health history focusing on
reproductive and sexual health concerns (mentors, gynecologic, and
pregnancy related) and psychosocial (Family related, peer related,
emotional, and physical as well as related to abuse, drug use and alcohol
use) concerns


Physical exam, screening test, and immunizations as indicated by the
health history and gynecologic considerations for an extern only
inspection of the genitalia


A Bethesda System Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent
with which classification Correct Answer-CIN 1


A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV
infection should have what as follow-up? Correct Answer-Routine
screening


A female patient is 35 years old. She has never had an abnormal Pap
smear and has had regular screening since age 18. If she has a normal
Pap smear with HPV testing today, when should she have the next
cervical cancer screening Correct Answer-Five years

,A young sexually active client of the family planning clinic is advised to
have a Pap smear. She has never had a Pap smear before. What should
the nurse include in the explanation of this procedure Correct Answer-
The Pap smear can detect cancer of the cervix


Lab results on your 26-year-old patient show a negative Pap smear with
a positive HPV screen. Which procedure will be required next Correct
Answer-Repeat Pap and HPV screen


Which of the following is not part of the criteria for an older woman to
see if having any future Pap test performed Correct Answer-Over 55
years of age


You are evaluating a 17-year-old Emily who presented with amenorrhea
and normal secondary sex characteristics. The purpose of the
progesterone challenge is to a certain the presence of Correct Answer-
Endogenous estrogen


A 17-year-old female patient presents with amenorrhea for four months
she did experience menarche at age 15 but had not had a menstrual cycle
since. On physical examination, it is noted that she has normal
secondary sexual characteristics. The nurse practitioner will consider
progesterone challenge to determine the presence of adequate Correct
Answer-Endogenous estrogen

, A teenage patient presents with amenorrhea and moral secondary sex
characteristics. The progesterone challenge is ordered. the purpose is to
determine the presence of Correct Answer-Endogenous estrogen


18-year-old female complaining of secondary amenorrhea. On exam,
there is a normal secondary sex characteristics and normal genitalia.
Pregnancy is ruled out what would necessitate further evaluation Correct
Answer-Galactorrhea


Primary amenorrhea is best described as Correct Answer-Failure to
menstrate by 13 years old


A nurse practitioner is participating in a woman's health fair. When
educating the woman about risk factors for breast cancer which of the
following statements is incorrect? Correct Answer-Fibrocystic breast
disease


When educating women about breast cancer risk factors which statement
is incorrect Correct Answer-Fibrocystic breast disease


A woman with lobular carcinoma in situ has a relative risk of developing
invasive breast cancer of Correct Answer-8.0


Changes and hormonal regulation during menopause result in the
gradual cessation of menstruation. From which gland is
Androstenedione secreted Correct Answer-Adrenals

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