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Complete Test Bank for ATI Pharmacology: Graded A+ with Correct Answers

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  • Course
  • Nutrition
  • Institution
  • Nutrition

Complete Test Bank for ATI Pharmacology: Graded A+ with Correct Answers

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  • January 11, 2025
  • 16
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • Nutrition
  • Nutrition

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DrBidesh
1. Which of the following is the most common side effect of opioid analgesics?

A) Diarrhea
B) Sedation
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypotension

Answer: B) Sedation
Rationale: Opioids often cause sedation as a common side effect due to their central nervous
system depressant effects.



2. What is the primary use of beta-blockers?

A) To treat hypertension
B) To increase heart rate
C) To treat diabetes
D) To treat infections

Answer: A) To treat hypertension
Rationale: Beta-blockers are primarily used to treat hypertension by decreasing heart rate and
contractility, which reduces cardiac output and lowers blood pressure.



3. A nurse is teaching a client about taking digoxin. Which statement by the
client indicates a need for further teaching?

A) "I will monitor my pulse rate daily."
B) "I can stop taking this medication if I feel dizzy."
C) "I should take this medication at the same time every day."
D) "I will notify my healthcare provider if I notice any visual disturbances."

Answer: B) "I can stop taking this medication if I feel dizzy."
Rationale: Digoxin should not be stopped suddenly, as it can worsen heart failure. Dizziness
could be a sign of digoxin toxicity, which requires medical intervention.



4. Which of the following medications is commonly used for the treatment of
anxiety disorders?

A) Lorazepam
B) Metformin

,C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Furosemide

Answer: A) Lorazepam
Rationale: Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety disorders by promoting CNS
depression and anxiolytic effects.



5. Which of the following is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors?

A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Weight loss
D) Constipation

Answer: A) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels in the blood, leading to hyperkalemia,
which can be dangerous if not monitored.



6. A nurse is administering a loop diuretic to a client. Which electrolyte
imbalance is the nurse most concerned about?

A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hyponatremia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypokalemia

Answer: D) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, promote the excretion of potassium, which can
lead to hypokalemia, increasing the risk of cardiac arrhythmias.



7. A client is taking warfarin. The nurse should monitor which laboratory value
to assess the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication?

A) Hemoglobin
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Platelet count
D) Prothrombin time (PT)

, Answer: B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
Rationale: The INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of warfarin, as it reflects the
blood’s ability to clot.



8. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine for pain management.
Which of the following assessments is the priority for this client?

A) Blood pressure
B) Respiratory rate
C) Urine output
D) Level of consciousness

Answer: B) Respiratory rate
Rationale: Morphine can depress the respiratory system, so monitoring the respiratory rate is the
priority to prevent respiratory depression.



9. Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of atorvastatin?

A) Hypoglycemia
B) Myopathy
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypercalcemia

Answer: B) Myopathy
Rationale: Statins, including atorvastatin, can cause myopathy or muscle pain, and in severe
cases, rhabdomyolysis, which can lead to kidney damage.



10. Which medication is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used to treat
gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

A) Omeprazole
B) Ranitidine
C) Diphenhydramine
D) Loperamide

Answer: A) Omeprazole
Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that reduces gastric acid production,
effectively treating GERD.

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