NUR 3028Adult Health Exit HESI study

ENDOCRINE DISORDERS 1. Nurse Ronn is assessing a client with possible Cushing’s syndrome. In a client with Cushing’s syndrome, the nurse would expect to find: a. Hypotension. b. Thick, coarse skin. c. Deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area. d. Weight gain in arms and legs. 1. Answer C. Because of changes in fat distribution, adipose tissue accumulates in the trunk, face (moonface), and dorsocervical areas (buffalo hump). Hypertension is caused by fluid retention. Skin becomes thin and bruises easily because of a loss of collagen. Muscle wasting causes muscle atrophy and thin extremities. 2. A male client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should nurse Lina provide? a. “Administer desmopressin while the suspension is cold.” b. “Your condition isn’t chronic, so you won’t need to wear a medical identification bracelet.” c. “You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.” d. “You won’t need to monitor your fluid intake and output after you start taking desmopressin.” 2. Answer C. Desmopressin may not be absorbed if the intranasal route is compromised. Although diabetes insipidus is treatable, the client should wear medical identification and carry medication at all times to alert medical personnel in an emergency and ensure proper treatment. The client must continue to monitor fluid intake and output and receive adequate fluid replacement. 3. Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek’s sign indicate? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypokalemia d. Hypermagnesemia a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypokalemia d. Hypermagnesemia 3. Answer A. Chvostek’s sign is elicited by tapping the client’s face lightly over the facial nerve, just below the temple. If the client’s facial muscles twitch, it indicates hypocalcemia. Hyponatremia is indicated by weight loss, abdominal cramping, muscle weakness, headache, and postural hypotension. Hypokalemia causes paralytic ileus and muscle weakness. Clients with hypermagnesemia exhibit a loss of deep tendon reflexes, coma, or cardiac arrest. 4. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing’s syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in: a. Serum glucose level. b. Hair loss. c. Bone mineralization. d. Menstrual flow. a. Serum glucose level. b. Hair loss. c. Bone mineralization. d. Menstrual flow. 4. Answer A. Hyperglycemia, which develops from glucocorticoid excess, is a manifestation of Cushing’s syndrome. With successful treatment of the disorder, serum glucose levels decline. Hirsutism is common in Cushing’s syndrome; therefore, with successful treatment, abnormal hair growth also declines. Osteoporosis occurs in Cushing’s syndrome; therefore, with successful treatment, bone mineralization increases. Amenorrhea develops in Cushing’s syndrome. With successful treatment, the client experiences a return of menstrual flow, not a decline in it. 5. A male client has recently undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor. Dr. Wong prescribes corticotropin (Acthar), 20 units I.M. q.i.d. as a replacement therapy. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin? a. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs. b. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions. c. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. d. It regulates the threshold for water resorption in the kidneys. 5. Answer C. Corticotropin interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. It doesn’t decrease cAMP production. The posterior pituitary hormone, antidiuretic hormone, regulates the threshold for water resorption in the kidneys. 6. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which he receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose’s: a. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m. b. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m. c. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m. d. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m. 6. Answer C. Regular insulin, which is a shortacting insulin, has an onset of 15 to 30 minutes and a peak of 2 to 4 hours. Because the nurse gave the insulin at 2 p.m., the expected onset would be from 2:15 p.m. to 2:30 p.m. and the peak from 4 p.m. to 6 p.m. 7. A female client with Cushing’s syndrome is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. During the admission assessment, nurse Tyzz notes that the client is agitated and irritable, has poor memory, reports loss of appetite, and appears disheveled. These findings are consistent with which problem? a. Depression b. Neuropathy c. Hypoglycemia d. Hyperthyroidism 7. Answer A. Agitation, irritability, poor memory, loss of appetite, and neglect of one’s appearance may signal depression, which is common in clients with Cushing’s syndrome. Neuropathy affects clients with diabetes mellitus — not Cushing’s syndrome. Although hypoglycemia can cause irritability, it also produces increased appetite, rather than loss of appetite. Hyperthyroidism typically causes such signs as goiter, nervousness, heat intolerance, and weight loss despite increased appetite. 8. Nurse Ruth is assessing a client after a thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals a. Tetany b. Hemorrhage 8. Answer A. Tetany may result if the parathyroid glands are excised or damaged during thyroid muscle twitching and tingling, along with numbness in the fingers, toes, and mouth area. The nurse should suspect which complication? c. Thyroid storm d. Laryngeal nerve damage surgery. Hemorrhage is a potential complication after thyroid surgery but is characterized by tachycardia, hypotension, frequent swallowing, feelings of fullness at the incision site, choking, and bleeding. Thyroid storm is another term for severe hyperthyroidism — not a complication of thyroidectomy. Laryngeal nerve damage may occur postoperatively, but its signs include a hoarse voice and, possibly, acute airway obstruction. 9. After undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy, a female client develops hypothyroidism. Dr. Smith prescribes levothyroxine (Levothroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. For which condition is levothyroxine the preferred agent? a. Primary hypothyroidism b. Graves’ disease c. Thyrotoxicosis d. Euthyroidism 9. Answer A. Levothyroxine is the preferred agent to treat primary hypothyroidism and cretinism, although it also may be used to treat secondary hypothyroidism. It is contraindicated in Graves’ disease and thyrotoxicosis because these conditions are forms of hyperthyroidism. Euthyroidism, a term used to describe normal thyroid function, wouldn’t require any thyroid preparation. 10. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications? a. Tetanic contractions b. Neck vein distention c. Weight loss d. Polyuria 10. Answer B. SIADH secretion causes antidiuretic hormone overproduction, which leads to fluid retention. Severe SIADH can cause such complications as vascular fluid overload, signaled by neck vein distention. This syndrome isn’t associated with tetanic contractions. It may cause weight gain and fluid retention (secondary to oliguria). 11. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer: a. phentolamine (Regitine). b. methyldopa (Aldomet). c. mannitol (Osmitrol). d. felodipine (Plendil). 11. Answer A. Pheochromocytoma causes excessive production of epinephrine and norepinephrine, natural catecholamines that raise the blood pressure. Phentolamine, an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent given by I.V. bolus or drip, antagonizes the body’s response to circulating epinephrine and norepinephrine, reducing blood pressure quickly and effectively. Although methyldopa is an antihypertensive agent available in parenteral form, it isn’t effective in treating hypertensive emergencies. Mannitol, a diuretic, isn’t used to treat hypertensive emergencies. Felodipine, an antihypertensive agent, is available only in extended-release tablets and therefore doesn’t reduce blood pressure quickly enough to correct hypertensive crisis. 12. A male client with a history of hypertension is diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client’s hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands? a. Adrenal cortex b. Pancreas c. Adrenal medulla d. Parathyroid 12. Answer A. Excessive secretion of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex is responsible for the client’s hypertension. This hormone acts on the renal tubule, where it promotes reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions. The pancreas mainly secretes hormones involved in fuel metabolism. The adrenal medulla secretes the catecholamines — epinephrine and norepinephrine. The parathyroids secrete parathyroid hormone. 13. Nurse Troy is aware that the most appropriate for a client with Addison’s disease? a. Risk for infection b. Excessive fluid volume c. Urinary retention d. Hypothermia 13. Answer A. Addison’s disease decreases the production of all adrenal hormones, compromising the body’s normal stress response and increasing the risk of infection. Other appropriate nursing diagnoses for a client with Addison’s disease include Deficient fluid volume and Hyperthermia. Urinary retention isn’t appropriate because Addison’s disease causes polyuria. 14. Acarbose (Precose), an alphaglucosidase inhibitor, is prescribed for a female client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. During discharge planning, nurse Pauleen would be aware of the client’s need for additional teaching when the client states: a. “If I have hypoglycemia, I should eat some sugar, not dextrose.” b. “The drug makes my pancreas release more insulin.” c. “I should never take insulin while I’m taking this drug.” d. “It’s best if I take the drug with the first bite of a meal.” 14. Answer A. Acarbose delays glucose absorption, so the client should take an oral form of dextrose rather than a product containing table sugar when treating hypoglycemia. The alpha-glucosidase inhibitors work by delaying the carbohydrate digestion and glucose absorption. It’s safe to be on a regimen that includes insulin and an alphaglucosidase inhibitor. The client should take the drug at the start of a meal, not 30 minutes to an hour before. 15. A female client whose physical findings suggest a hyperpituitary condition undergoes an extensive diagnostic workup. Test results reveal a pituitary tumor, which necessitates a transphenoidal hypophysectomy. The evening a. “You must lie flat for 24 hours after surgery.” b. “You must avoid coughing, sneezing, and blowing your nose.” c. “You must restrict your fluid intake.” 15. Answer B. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the client must refrain from coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose for several days to avoid disturbing the surgical graft used to close the wound. The head of the bed must be before the surgery, nurse Jacob reviews preoperative and postoperative instructions given to the client earlier. Which postoperative instruction should the nurse emphasize? d. “You must report ringing in your ears immediately.” elevated, not kept flat, to prevent tension or pressure on the suture line. Within 24 hours after a hypophysectomy, transient diabetes insipidus commonly occurs; this calls for increased, not restricted, fluid intake. Visual, not auditory, changes are a potential complication of hypophysectomy. 16. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide? a. “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.” b. “Glipizide may cause a low serum sodium level, so make sure you have your sodium level checked monthly.” c. “You won’t need to check your blood glucose level after you start taking glipizide.” d. “Take glipizide after a meal to prevent heartburn.” 16. Answer A. The client should take glipizide twice a day, 30 minutes before a meal, because food decreases its absorption. The drug doesn’t cause hyponatremia and therefore doesn’t necessitate monthly serum sodium measurement. The client must continue to monitor the blood glucose level during glipizide therapy. 17. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the physician orders bed rest, a wet-todry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client? a. They contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment. b. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing. c. They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention. d. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort. 17. Answer C. For this client, wet-to-dry dressings are most appropriate because they clean the foot ulcer by debriding exudate and necrotic tissue, thus promoting healing by secondary intention. Moist, transparent dressings contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment. Hydrocolloid dressings prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort. Dry sterile dressings protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing. 18. When instructing the female client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, nurse Gina should stress the importance of which of the following? a. Restricting fluids b. Restricting sodium c. Forcing fluids d. Restricting potassium 18. Answer C. The client should be encouraged to force fluids to prevent renal calculi formation. Sodium should be encouraged to replace losses in urine. Restricting potassium isn’t necessary in hyperparathyroidism. 19. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a female client with hyperthyroidism? a. Risk for imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess b. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing c. Body image disturbance related to weight 19. Answer D. In the client with hyperthyroidism, excessive thyroid hormone production leads to hypermetabolism and increased nutrient metabolism. These conditions may result in a negative nitrogen balance, increased protein synthesis and breakdown, decreased glucose tolerance, and fat mobilization gain and edema d. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess and depletion. This puts the client at risk for marked nutrient and calorie deficiency, making Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements the most important nursing diagnosis. Options B and C may be appropriate for a client with hypothyroidism, which slows the metabolic rate. 20. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder? a. Serum potassium level b. Serum sodium level c. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values d. Serum osmolarity 20. Answer D. Serum osmolarity is the most important test for confirming HHNS; it’s also used to guide treatment strategies and determine evaluation criteria. A client with HHNS typically has a serum osmolarity of more than 350 mOsm/L. Serum potassium, serum sodium, and ABG values are also measured, but they aren’t as important as serum osmolarity for confirming a diagnosis of HHNS. A client with HHNS typically has hypernatremia and osmotic diuresis. ABG values reveal acidosis, and the potassium level is variable. 21. A male client has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. When teaching the client and family how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements, Nurse Joy should include which guideline? a. “You’ll need more insulin when you exercise or increase your food intake.” b. “You’ll need less insulin when you exercise or reduce your food intake.” c. “You’ll need less insulin when you increase your food intake.” d. “You’ll need more insulin when you exercise or decrease your food intake.” 21. Answer B. Exercise, reduced food intake, hypothyroidism, and certain medications decrease the insulin requirements. Growth, pregnancy, greater food intake, stress, surgery, infection, illness, increased insulin antibodies, and certain medications increase the insulin requirements. 22. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client, then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon? a. Oral anticoagulants b. Anabolic steroids c. Beta-adrenergic blockers d. Thiazide diuretics 22. Answer A. As a normal body protein, glucagon only interacts adversely with oral anticoagulants, increasing the anticoagulant effects. It doesn’t interact adversely with anabolic steroids, betaadrenergic blockers, or thiazide diuretics. 23. Which instruction about insulin administration should nurse Kate give to a client? a. “Always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe.” b. “Shake the vials before withdrawing the insulin.” c. “Store unopened vials of insulin in the 23. Answer A. The client should be instructed always to follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe. Insulin should never be shaken because the resulting froth prevents withdrawal of an accurate dose and may damage the freezer at temperatures well below freezing.” d. “Discard the intermediate-acting insulin if it appears cloudy.” insulin protein molecules. Insulin also should never be frozen because the insulin protein molecules may be damaged. Intermediate-acting insulin is normally cloudy. 24. Nurse Perry is caring for a female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is still conscious. The nurse should first administer: a. I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon. b. I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%. c. 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice. d. 10 U of fast-acting insulin. 24. Answer C. This client is having a hypoglycemic episode. Because the client is conscious, the nurse should first administer a fastacting carbohydrate, such as orange juice, hard candy, or honey. If the client has lost consciousness, the nurse should administer either I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon or an I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%. The nurse shouldn’t administer insulin to a client who’s hypoglycemic; this action will further compromise the client’s condition. 25. For the first 72 hours after thyroidectomy surgery, nurse Jamie would assess the female client for Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign because they indicate which of the following? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hypercalcemia c. Hypokalemia d. Hyperkalemia 25. Answer A. The client who has undergone a thyroidectomy is at risk for developing hypocalcemia from inadvertent removal or damage to the parathyroid gland. The client with hypocalcemia will exhibit a positive Chvostek’s sign (facial muscle contraction when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped) and a positive Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated for a few minutes). These signs aren’t present with hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, or hyperkalemia. 1. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, nurse Lily teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting: a. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate. b. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. c. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate. d. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate. 1. Answer B. To reverse hypoglycemia, the American Diabetes Association recommends ingesting 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate, such as three to five pieces of hard candy, two to three packets of sugar (4 to 6 tsp), or 4 oz of fruit juice. If necessary, this treatment can be repeated in 15 minutes. Ingesting only 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate may not raise the blood glucose level sufficiently. Ingesting more than 15 g may raise it above normal, causing hyperglycemia. 2. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, nurse Julia formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add? a. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures b. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate c. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces d. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level 2. Answer A. Poorly controlled hyperparathyroidism may cause an elevated serum calcium level. This, in turn, may diminish calcium stores in the bone, causing bone demineralization and setting the stage for pathologic fractures and a risk for injury. Hyperparathyroidism doesn’t accelerate the metabolic rate. A decreased thyroid hormone level, not an increased parathyroid hormone level, may cause edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces. Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia; therefore, it isn’t associated with tetany. 3. Nurse John is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he’s impotent and says he’s concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client’s care, the most appropriate intervention would be to: a. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality. b. Provide time for privacy. c. Provide support for the spouse or significant other. d. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional. 3. Answer D. The nurse should refer this client to a sex counselor or other professional. Making appropriate referrals is a valid part of planning the client’s care. The nurse doesn’t normally provide sex counseling. 4. During a class on exercise for diabetic clients, a female client asks the nurse educator how often to exercise. The nurse educator advises the clients to exercise how often to meet the goals of planned exercise? a. At least once a week b. At least three times a week c. At least five times a week d. Every day 4. Answer B. Diabetic clients must exercise at least three times a week to meet the goals of planned exercise — lowering the blood glucose level, reducing or maintaining the proper weight, increasing the serum high-density lipoprotein level, decreasing serum triglyceride levels, reducing blood pressure, and minimizing stress. Exercising once a week wouldn’t achieve these goals. Exercising more than three times a week, although beneficial, would exceed the minimum requirement. 5. Nurse Oliver should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which health concerns? a. Increased appetite and weight loss b. Puffiness of the face and hands c. Nervousness and tremors d. Thyroid gland swelling 5. Answer B. Hypothyroidism (myxedema) causes facial puffiness, extremity edema, and weight gain. Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease) include an increased appetite, weight loss, nervousness, tremors, and thyroid gland enlargement (goiter). 6. A female client with hypothyroidism (myxedema) is receiving levothyroxine (Synthroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. Which finding should nurse Hans recognize as an adverse drug effect? a. Dysuria b. Leg cramps c. Tachycardia d. Blurred vision 6. Answer C. Levothyroxine, a synthetic thyroid hormone, is given to a client with hypothyroidism to simulate the effects of thyroxine. Adverse effects of this agent include tachycardia. The other options aren’t associated with levothyroxine. 7. A 67-year-old male client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with her going outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, nurse Richard would suspect which of the following disorders? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Diabetes insipidus c. Hypoparathyroidism d. Hyperparathyroidism 7. Answer D. Hyperparathyroidism is most common in older women and is characterized by bone pain and weakness from excess parathyroid hormone (PTH). Clients also exhibit hypercaliuriacausing polyuria. While clients with diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus also have polyuria, they don’t have bone pain and increased sleeping. Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by urinary frequency rather than polyuria. 8. When caring for a male client with diabetes insipidus, nurse Juliet expects to administer: a. vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). b. furosemide (Lasix). c. regular insulin. d. 10% dextrose. 8. Answer A. Because diabetes insipidus results from decreased antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) production, the nurse should expect to administer synthetic vasopressin for hormone replacement therapy. Furosemide, a diuretic, is contraindicated because a client with diabetes insipidus experiences polyuria. Insulin and dextrose are used to treat diabetes mellitus and its complications, not diabetes insipidus. 9. The nurse is aware that the following is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism? a. Excessive sodium intake b. A pituitary adenoma c. Deficient potassium intake d. An adrenal adenoma 9. Answer D. An autonomous aldosteroneproducing adenoma is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism. Hyperplasia is the second most frequent cause. Aldosterone secretion is independent of sodium and potassium intake as well as of pituitary stimulation. 10. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating: a. “The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.” b. “It looks like you aren’t following the prescribed diabetic diet.” c. “It tells us about your sugar control for the 10. Answer C. The glycosylated Hb test provides an objective measure of glycemic control over a 3month period. The test helps identify trends or practices that impair glycemic control, and it doesn’t require a fasting period before blood is drawn. The last 3 months.” d. “Your insulin regimen needs to be altered significantly.” nurse can’t conclude that the result occurs from poor dietary management or inadequate insulin coverage. 11. Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia shown by which of the following? a. Muscle weakness b. Tremors c. Diaphoresis d. Constipation 11. Answer A. Muscle weakness, bradycardia, nausea, diarrhea, and paresthesia of the hands, feet, tongue, and face are findings associated with hyperkalemia, which is transient and occurs from transient hypoaldosteronism when the adenoma is removed. Tremors, diaphoresis, and constipation aren’t seen in hyperkalemia. 12. Nurse Louie is developing a teaching plan for a male client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should include information about which hormone lacking in clients with diabetes insipidus? a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH). b. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). c. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). d. luteinizing hormone (LH). 12. Answer A. ADH is the hormone clients with diabetes insipidus lack. The client’s TSH, FSH, and LH levels won’t be affected. 13. Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105° F (40.5° C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs? a. Diabetic ketoacidosis b. Thyroid crisis c. Hypoglycemia d. Tetany 13. Answer B. Thyroid crisis usually occurs in the first 12 hours after thyroidectomy and causes exaggerated signs of hyperthyroidism, such as high fever, tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. Diabetic ketoacidosis is more likely to produce polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia; hypoglycemia, to produce weakness, tremors, profuse perspiration, and hunger. Tetany typically causes uncontrollable muscle spasms, stridor, cyanosis, and possibly asphyxia. 14. For a male client with hyperglycemia, which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume? a. Cool, clammy skin b. Distended neck veins c. Increased urine osmolarity d. Decreased serum sodium level 14. Answer C. In hyperglycemia, urine osmolarity (the measurement of dissolved particles in the urine) increases as glucose particles move into the urine. The client experiences glucosuria and polyuria, losing body fluids and experiencing fluid volume deficit. Cool, clammy skin; distended neck veins; and a decreased serum sodium level are signs of fluid volume excess, the opposite imbalance. 15. When assessing a male client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal a. a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. b. a blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl. 15. Answer D. Pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive medulla that secretes excessive catecholamine, nurse April is most likely to detect: c. bradycardia. d. a blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg. catecholamine, causes hypertension, tachycardia, hyperglycemia, hypermetabolism, and weight loss. It isn’t associated with the other options. 16. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered b. Encouraging increased oral intake c. Restricting fluids d. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered 16. Answer C. To reduce water retention in a client with the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids. Administering fluids by any route would further increase the client’s already heightened fluid load. 17. A female client has a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl. During the physical examination, nurse Noah expects to assess: a. Trousseau’s sign. b. Homans’ sign. c. Hegar’s sign. d. Goodell’s sign. 17. Answer A. This client’s serum calcium level indicates hypocalcemia, an electrolyte imbalance that causes Trousseau’s sign (carpopedal spasm induced by inflating the blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure). Homans’ sign (pain on dorsiflexion of the foot) indicates deep vein thrombosis. Hegar’s sign (softening of the uterine isthmus) and Goodell’s sign (cervical softening) are probable signs of pregnancy. 18. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective? a. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day. b. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour. c. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. d. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute. 18. Answer A. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria (up to 8 L/day), constant thirst, and an unusually high oral intake of fluids. Treatment with the appropriate drug should decrease both oral fluid intake and urine output. A urine output of 200 ml/hour indicates continuing polyuria. A blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 126 beats/minute indicate compensation for the continued fluid deficit, suggesting that treatment hasn’t been effective. 19. Jemma, who weighs 210 lb (95 kg) and has been diagnosed with hyperglycemia tells the nurse that her husband sleeps in another room because her snoring keeps him awake. The nurse notices that she has large hands and a hoarse voice. Which of the following would the nurse suspect as a possible cause of the client’s hyperglycemia? a. Acromegaly b. Type 1 diabetes mellitus c. Hypothyroidism d. Deficient growth hormone 19. Answer A. Acromegaly, which is caused by a pituitary tumor that releases excessive growth hormone, is associated with hyperglycemia, hypertension, diaphoresis, peripheral neuropathy, and joint pain. Enlarged hands and feet are related to lateral bone growth, which is seen in adults with this disorder. The accompanying soft tissue swelling causes hoarseness and often sleep apnea. Type 1 diabetes is usually seen in children, and newly diagnosed persons are usually very ill and thin. Hypothyroidism isn’t associated with hyperglycemia, nor is growth hormone deficiency. 20. Nurse Kate is providing dietary instructions to a male client with hypoglycemia. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should recommend: a. Increasing saturated fat intake and fasting in the afternoon. b. Increasing intake of vitamins B and D and taking iron supplements. c. Eating a candy bar if light-headedness occurs. d. Consuming a low-carbohydrate, highprotein diet and avoiding fasting. 20. Answer D. To control hypoglycemic episodes, the nurse should instruct the client to consume a lowcarbohydrate, high-protein diet, avoid fasting, and avoid simple sugars. Increasing saturated fat intake and increasing vitamin supplementation wouldn’t help control hypoglycemia. 21. An incoherent female client with a history of hypothyroidism is brought to the emergency department by the rescue squad. Physical and laboratory findings reveal hypothermia, hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis, bradycardia, hypotension, and nonpitting edema of the face and pretibial area. Knowing that these findings suggest severe hypothyroidism, nurse Libby prepares to take emergency action to prevent the potential complication of:. a. Thyroid storm. b. Cretinism. c. myxedema coma. d. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis 21. Answer C. Severe hypothyroidism may result in myxedema coma, in which a drastic drop in the metabolic rate causes decreased vital signs, hypoventilation (possibly leading to respiratory acidosis), and nonpitting edema. Thyroid storm is an acute complication of hyperthyroidism. Cretinism is a form of hypothyroidism that occurs in infants. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a common chronic inflammatory disease of the thyroid gland in which autoimmune factors play a prominent role. 22. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client: a. prefers to take insulin orally. b. has type 2 diabetes. c. has type 1 diabetes. d. is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes. 22. Answer B. Oral antidiabetic agents are only effective in adult clients with type 2 diabetes. Oral antidiabetic agents aren’t effective in type 1 diabetes. Pregnant and lactating women aren’t prescribed oral antidiabetic agents because the effect on the fetus is uncertain. 23. When caring for a female client with a history of hypoglycemia, nurse Ruby should avoid administering a drug that may potentiate hypoglycemia. Which drug fits this description? a. sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) b. mexiletine (Mexitil) c. prednisone (Orasone) d. lithium carbonate (Lithobid) 23. Answer A. Sulfisoxazole and other sulfonamides are chemically related to oral antidiabetic agents and may precipitate hypoglycemia. Mexiletine, an antiarrhythmic, is used to treat refractory ventricular arrhythmias; it doesn’t cause hypoglycemia. Prednisone, a corticosteroid, is associated with hyperglycemia. Lithium may cause transient hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. 24. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. Which of the following would the nurse expect the physician to do? a. Initiate insulin therapy. b. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent. c. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent. d. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake. 24. Answer B. Many clients (25% to 60%) with secondary failure respond to a different oral antidiabetic agent. Therefore, it wouldn’t be appropriate to initiate insulin therapy at this time. However, if a new oral antidiabetic agent is unsuccessful in keeping glucose levels at an acceptable level, insulin may be used in addition to the antidiabetic agent. 25. During preoperative teaching for a female client who will undergo subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse should include which statement? a. “The head of your bed must remain flat for 24 hours after surgery.” b. “You should avoid deep breathing and coughing after surgery.” c. “You won’t be able to swallow for the first day or two.” d. “You must avoid hyperextending your neck after surgery.” 25. Answer D. To prevent undue pressure on the surgical incision after subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse should advise the client to avoid hyperextending the neck. The client may elevate the head of the bed as desired and should perform deep breathing and coughing to help prevent pneumonia. Subtotal thyroidectomy doesn’t affect swallowing. GASTROINTESTINAL DISORDERS 1. Nurse Berlinda is assigned to a 41-yearold client who has a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. The nurse reviews the laboratory result, anticipating a laboratory report that indicates a serum amylase level of: a. 45 units/L b. 100 units/L c. 300 units/L d. 500 units/L 1. Answer C. The normal serum amylase level is 25 to 151 units/L. With chronic cases of pancreatitis 2. A male client who is recovering from surgery has been advanced from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The client is looking forward to the diet change because he has been “bored” with the clear liquid diet. The nurse would offer which full liquid item to the client? a. Tea b. Gelatin c. Custard d. Popsicle 2. Answer C. Full liquid food items include items such as plain ice cream 3. Nurse Juvy is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. To minimize the effects of the disorder, the nurse teaches the client about foods that are high in thiamine. The nurse determines that the client has the best a. Pork b. Milk c. Chicken d. Broccoli 3. Answer A. The client with cirrhosis needs to consume foods high in thiamine. Thiamine is present in a variety of foods of plant and animal origin. Pork products are especially rich in this vitamin. Other good food sources include nuts understanding of the dietary measures to follow if the client states an intension to increase the intake of: 4. Nurse Oliver checks for residual before administering a bolus tube feeding to a client with a nasogastric tube and obtains a residual amount of 150 mL. What is appropriate action for the nurse to take? a. Hold the feeding b. Reinstill the amount and continue with administering the feeding c. Elevate the client’s head at least 45 degrees and administer the feeding d. Discard the residual amount and proceed with administering the feeding 4. Answer A. Unless specifically indicated 5. A nurse is inserting a nasogastric tube in an adult male client. During the procedure, the client begins to cough and has difficulty breathing. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action? a. Quickly insert the tube b. Notify the physician immediately c. Remove the tube and reinsert when the respiratory distress subsides d. Pull back on the tube and wait until the respiratory distress subsides 5. Answer D. During the insertion of a nasogastric tube 6. Nurse Ryan is assessing for correct placement of a nosogartric tube. The nurse aspirates the stomach contents and check the contents for pH. The nurse verifies correct tube placement if which pH value is noted? a. 3.5 b. 7.0 c. 7.35 d. 7.5 6. Answer A. If the nasogastric tube is in the stomach 7. A nurse is preparing to remove a nasogartric tube from a female client. The nurse should instruct the client to do which of the following just before the nurse removes the tube? a. Exhale b. Inhale and exhale quickly c. Take and hold a deep breath d. Perform a Valsalva maneuver 7. Answer C. When the nurse removes a nasogastric tube 8. Nurse Joy is preparing to administer medication through a nasogastric tube that is connected to suction. To administer the medication, the nurse would: a. Position the client supine to assist in medication absorption b. Aspirate the nasogastric tube after medication administration to maintain patency c. Clamp the nasogastric tube for 30 minutes following administration of the medication d. Change the suction setting to low intermittent suction for 30 minutes after 8. Answer C. If a client has a nasogastric tube connected to suction medication administration 9. A nurse is preparing to care for a female client with esophageal varices who has just has a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube inserted. The nurse gathers supplies, knowing that which of the following items must be kept at the bedside at all times? a. An obturator b. Kelly clamp c. An irrigation set d. A pair of scissors 9. Answer C. When the client has a Sengstaken- Blakemore tube 10. Dr. Smith has determined that the client with hepatitis has contracted the infection form contaminated food. The nurse understands that this client is most likely experiencing what type of hepatitis? a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D 10. Answer A. Hepatitis A is transmitted by the fecal-oral route via contaminated food or infected food handlers. Hepatitis B 11. A client is suspected of having hepatitis. Which diagnostic test result will assist in confirming this diagnosis? a. Elevated hemoglobin level b. Elevated serum bilirubin level c. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level d. Decreased erythrocycle sedimentation rate 11. Answer B. Laboratory indicators of hepatitis include elevated liver enzyme levels 12. The nurse is reviewing the physician’s orders written for a male client admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis. Which physician order should the nurse question if noted on the client’s chart? a. NPO status b. Nasogastric tube inserted c. Morphine sulfate for pain d. An anticholinergic medication 12. Answer C. Meperidine (Demerol) rather than morphine sulfate is the medication of choice to treat pain because morphine sulfate can cause spasms in the sphincter of Oddi. Options A 13. A female client being seen in a physician’s office has just been scheduled for a barium swallow the next day. The nurse writes down which instruction for the client to follow before the test? a. Fast for 8 hours before the test b. Eat a regular supper and breakfast c. Continue to take all oral medications as scheduled d. Monitor own bowel movement pattern for constipation 13. Answer A. A barium swallow is an x-ray study that uses a substance called barium for contrast to highlight abnormalities in the gastrointestinal tract. The client should fast for 8 to 12 hours before the test 14. The nurse is performing an abdominal assessment and inspects the skin of the abdomen. The nurse performs which assessment technique next? a. Palpates the abdomen for size b. Palpates the liver at the right rib margin c. Listens to bowel sounds in all for quadrants d. Percusses the right lower abdominal quadrant 14. Answer C. The appropriate sequence for abdominal examination is inspection 15. Polyethylene glycol-electrlyte solution (GoLYTELY) is prescribed for the female client scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client a. Start an IV infusion b. Administer an enema c. Cancel the diagnostic test 15. Answer D. The solution GoLYTELY is a bowel evacuant used to prepare a client for a colonoscopy by cleansing the bowel. The solution is begins to experience diarrhea following administration of the solution. What action by the nurse is appropriate? d. Explain that diarrhea is expected expected to cause a mild diarrhea and will clear the bowel in 4 to 5 hours. Options A 16. The nurse is caring for a male client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client knowing that this client is at risk for which vitamin deficiency? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B12 c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin E 16. Answer B. Chronic gastritis causes deterioration and atrophy of the lining of the stomach 17. The nurse is reviewing the medication record of a female client with acute gastritis. Which medication, if noted on the client’s record, would the nurse question? a. Digoxin (Lanoxin) b. Furosemide (Lasix) c. Indomethacin (Indocin) d. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) 17. Answer C. Indomethacin (Indocin) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and can cause ulceration of the esophagus 18. The nurse is assessing a male client 24 hours following a cholecystectomy. The nurse noted that the T tube has drained 750 mL of green-brown drainage since the surgery. Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Clamp the T tube b. Irrigate the T tube c. Notify the physician d. Document the findings 18. Answer D. Following cholecystectomy 19. The nurse is monitoring a female client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. Which assessment findings would most likely indicate perforation of the ulcer? a. Bradycardia b. Numbness in the legs c. Nausea and vomiting d. A rigid, board-like abdomen 19. Answer D. Perforation of an ulcer is a surgical emergency and is characterized by sudden 20. A male client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of this procedure. Which response by the nurse best describes the purpose of a vagotomy? a. Halts stress reactions b. Heals the gastric mucosa c. Reduces the stimulus to acid secretions d. Decreases food absorption in the stomach 20. Answer C. A vagotomy 21. The nurse is caring for a female client following a Billroth II procedure. Which postoperative order should the nurse question and verify? a. Leg exercises b. Early ambulation c. Irrigating the nasogastric tube d. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises 21. Answer C. In a Billroth II procedure 22. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a male client following gastrectomy and instructs the client to take which measure to assist in preventing dumping syndrome? a. Ambulate following a meal b. Eat high carbohydrate foods c. Limit the fluid taken with meal d. Sit in a high-Fowler’s position during meals 22. Answer C. Dumping syndrome is a term that refers to a constellation of vasomotor symptoms that occurs after eating 23. The nurse is monitoring a female client a. Sweating and pallor 23. Answer A. Early manifestations of dumping for the early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome. Which of the following indicate this occurrence? b. Bradycardia and indigestion c. Double vision and chest pain d. Abdominal cramping and pain syndrome occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating. Symptoms include vertigo 24. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for the male client who had umbilical hernia repair. What should the nurse include in the plan? a. Irrigating the drain b. Avoiding coughing c. Maintaining bed rest d. Restricting pain medication 24. Answer B. Coughing is avoided following umbilical hernia repair to prevent disruption of tissue integrity 25. The nurse is instructing the male client who has an inguinal hernia repair how to reduce postoperative swelling following the procedure. What should the nurse tell the client? a. Limit oral fluid b. Elevate the scrotum c. Apply heat to the abdomen d. Remain in a low-fiber diet 25. Answer B. Following inguinal hernia repair 26. The nurse is caring for a hospitalized female client with a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. Which finding, if noted on assessment of the client, would the nurse report to the physician? a. Hypotension b. Bloody diarrhea c. Rebound tenderness d. A hemoglobin level of 12 mg/dL 26. Answer C. Rebound tenderness may indicate peritonitis. Bloody diarrhea is expected to occur in ulcerative colitis. Because of the blood loss 27. The nurse is caring for a male client postoperatively following creation of a colostomy. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Sexual dysfunction b. Body image, disturbed c. Fear related to poor prognosis d. Nutrition: more than body requirements, imbalanced 27. Answer B. Body image 28. The nurse is reviewing the record of a female client with Crohn’s disease. Which stool characteristics should the nurse expect to note documented in the client’s record? a. Diarrhea b. Chronic constipation c. Constipation alternating with diarrhea d. Stools constantly oozing form the rectum 28. Answer A. Crohn’s disease is characterized by nonbloody diarrhea of usually not more than four to five stools daily. Over time 29. The nurse is performing a colostomy irrigation on a male client. During the irrigation, the client begins to complain of abdominal cramps. What is the appropriate nursing action? a. Notify the physician b. Stop the irrigation temporarily c. Increase the height of the irrigation d. Medicate for pain and resume the irrigation 29. Answer B. If cramping occurs during a colostomy irrigation 30. The nurse is teaching a female client how to perform a colostomy irrigation. To enhance the effectiveness of the irrigation and fecal returns, what measure should the nurse a. Increase fluid intake b. Place heat on the abdomen c. Perform the irrigation in the evening d. Reduce the amount of irrigation solution 30. Answer A. To enhance effectiveness of the irrigation and fecal returns, the client is instructed to increase fluid intake and to take other measures to prevent constipation. Options B, C and D will not instruct the client to do? enhance the effectiveness of this procedure. 1. During preparation for bowel surgery, a male client receives an antibiotic to reduce intestinal bacteria. Antibiotic therapy may interfere with synthesis of which vitamin and may lead to hypoprothrombinemia? a. vitamin A b. vitamin D c. vitamin E d. vitamin K 1. Answer D. Intestinal bacteria synthesize such nutritional substances as vitamin K, thiamine, riboflavin, vitamin B12, folic acid, biotin, and nicotinic acid. Therefore, antibiotic therapy may interfere with synthesis of these substances, including vitamin K. Intestinal bacteria don’t synthesize vitamins A, D, or E. 2. When evaluating a male client for complications of acute pancreatitis, the nurse would observe for: a. increased intracranial pressure. b. decreased urine output. c. bradycardia. d. hypertension 2. Answer B. Acute pancreatitis can cause decreased urine output, which results from the renal failure that sometimes accompanies this condition. Intracranial pressure neither increases nor decreases in a client with pancreatitis. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, usually is associated with pulmonary or hypovolemic complications of pancreatitis. Hypotension can be caused by a hypovolemic complication, but hypertension usually isn’t related to acute pancreatitis. 3. A male client with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy. How should the nurse position the client for this test initially? a. Lying on the right side with legs straight b. Lying on the left side with knees bent c. Prone with the torso elevated d. Bent over with hands touching the floor 3. Answer B. For a colonoscopy, the nurse initially should position the client on the left side with knees bent. Placing the client on the right side with legs straight, prone with the torso elevated, or bent over with hands touching the floor wouldn’t allow proper visualization of the large intestine. 4. A male client with extreme weakness, pallor, weak peripheral pulses, and disorientation is admitted to the emergency department. His wife reports that he has been “spitting up blood.” A Mallory-Weiss tear is suspected, and the nurse begins taking a client history from the client’s wife. The question a. “Tell me about your husband’s alcohol usage.” b. “Is your husband being treated for tuberculosis?” c. “Has your husband recently fallen or injured his chest?” d. “Describe spices and condiments your 4. Answer A. A Mallory-Weiss tear is associated with massive bleeding after a tear occurs in the mucous membrane at the junction of the esophagus and stomach. There is a strong relationship between ethanol usage, resultant vomiting, and a MalloryWeiss tear. The bleeding is coming from the stomach, not from the lungs as would be true in by the nurse that demonstrates her understanding of Mallory-Weiss tearing is: husband uses on food.” some cases of tuberculosis. A Mallory-Weiss tear doesn’t occur from chest injuries or falls and isn’t associated with eating spicy foods. 5. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform for a female client receiving enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube? a. Change the tube feeding solutions and tubing at least every 24 hours. b. Maintain the head of the bed at a 15-degree elevation continuously. c. Check the gastrostomy tube for position every 2 days. d. Maintain the client on bed rest during the feedings. 5. Answer A. Tube feeding solutions and tubing should be changed every 24 hours, or more frequently if the feeding requires it. Doing so prevents contamination and bacterial growth. The head of the bed should be elevated 30 to 45 degrees continuously to prevent aspiration. Checking for gastrostomy tube placement is performed before initiating the feedings and every 4 hours during continuous feedings. Clients may ambulate during feedings. 6. A male client is recovering from a smallbowel resection. To relieve pain, the physician prescribes meperidine (Demerol), 75 mg I.M. every 4 hours. How soon after administration should meperidine’s onset of action occur? a. 5 to 10 minutes b. 15 to 30 minutes c. 30 to 60 minutes d. 2 to 4 hours 6. Answer B. Meperidine’s onset of action is 15 to 30 minutes. It peaks between 30 and 60 minutes and has a duration of action of 2 to 4 hours. 7. The nurse is caring for a male client with cirrhosis. Which assessment findings indicate that the client has deficient vitamin K absorption caused by this hepatic disease? a. Dyspnea and fatigue b. Ascites and orthopnea c. Purpura and petechiae d. Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy 7. Answer C. A hepatic disorder, such as cirrhosis, may disrupt the liver’s normal use of vitamin K to produce prothrombin (a clotting factor). Consequently, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, including purpura and petechiae. Dyspnea and fatigue suggest anemia. Ascites and orthopnea are unrelated to vitamin K absorption. Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy result from decreased estrogen metabolism by the diseased liver. 8. Which condition is most likely to have a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit? a. Appendicitis b. Pancreatitis c. Cholecystitis d. Gastric ulcer 8. Answer B. Hypovolemic shock from fluid shifts is a major factor in acute pancreatitis. The other conditions are less likely to exhibit fluid volume deficit. 9. While a female client is being prepared for discharge, the nasogastric (NG) feeding tube becomes clogged. To remedy this problem and teach the client’s family how to deal with it at home, what should the nurse do? a. Irrigate the tube with cola. b. Advance the tube into the intestine. c. Apply intermittent suction to the tube. d. Withdraw the obstruction with a 30-ml syringe. 9. Answer A. The nurse should irrigate the tube with cola because its effervescence and acidity are suited to the purpose, it’s inexpensive, and it’s readily available in most homes. Advancing the NG tube is inappropriate because the tube is designed to stay in the stomach and isn’t long enough to reach the intestines. Applying intermittent suction or using a syringe for aspiration is unlikely to dislodge the material clogging the tube but may create excess pressure. Intermittent suction may even collapse the tube. 10. A male client with pancreatitis complains of pain. The nurse expects the physician to prescribe meperidine (Demerol) instead of morphine to relieve pain because: a. meperidine provides a better, more prolonged analgesic effect. b. morphine may cause spasms of Oddi’s sphincter. c. meperidine is less addictive than morphine. d. morphine may cause hepatic dysfunction. 10. Answer B. For a client with pancreatitis, the physician will probably avoid prescribing morphine because this drug may trigger spasms of the sphincter of Oddi (a sphincter at the end of the pancreatic duct), causing irritation of the pancreas. Meperidine has a somewhat shorter duration of action than morphine. The two drugs are equally addictive. Morphine isn’t associated with hepatic dysfunction. 11. Mandy, an adolescent girl is admitted to an acute care facility with severe malnutrition. After a thorough examination, the physician diagnoses anorexia nervosa. When developing the plan of care for this client, the nurse is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis? a. Hopelessness b. Powerlessness c. Chronic low self esteem d. Deficient knowledge 11. Answer C. Young women with Chronic low self esteem — are at highest risk for anorexia nervosa because they perceive being thin as a way to improve their self-confidence. Hopelessness and Powerlessness are inappropriate nursing diagnoses because clients with anorexia nervosa seldom feel hopeless or powerless; instead, they use food to control their desire to be thin and hope that restricting food intake will achieve this goal. Anorexia nervosa doesn’t result from a knowledge deficit, such as one regarding good nutrition. 12. Which diagnostic test would be used first to evaluate a client with upper GI a. Endoscopy b. Upper GI series 12. Answer A. Endoscopy permits direct evaluation of the upper GI tract and can detect 90% bleeding? c. Hemoglobin (Hb) levels and hematocrit (HCT) d. Arteriography of bleeding lesions. An upper GI series, or barium study, usually isn’t the diagnostic method of choice, especially in a client with acute active bleeding who’s vomiting and unstable. An upper GI series is also less accurate than endoscopy. Although an upper GI series might confirm the presence of a lesion, it wouldn’t necessarily reveal whether the lesion is bleeding. Hb levels and HCT, which indicate loss of blood volume, aren’t always reliable indicators of GI bleeding because a decrease in these values may not be seen for several hours. Arteriography is an invasive study associated with life-threatening complications and wouldn’t be used for an initial evaluation. 13. A female client who has just been diagnosed with hepatitis A asks, “How could I have gotten this disease?” What is the nurse’s best response? a. “You may have eaten contaminated restaurant food.” b. “You could have gotten it by using I.V. drugs.” c. “You must have received an infected blood transfusion.” d. “You probably got it by engaging in unprotected sex.” 13. Answer A. Hepatitis A virus typically is transmitted by the oral-fecal route — commonly by consuming food contaminated by infected food handlers. The virus isn’t transmitted by the I.V. route, blood transfusions, or unprotected sex. Hepatitis B can be transmitted by I.V. drug use or blood transfusion. Hepatitis C can be transmitted by unprotected sex. 14. When preparing a male client, age 51, for surgery to treat appendicitis, the nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery. What is the rationale for choosing this nursing diagnosis? a. Obstruction of the appendix may increase venous drainage and cause the appendix to rupture. b. Obstruction of the appendix reduces arterial flow, leading to ischemia, inflammation, and rupture of the appendix. c. The appendix may develop gangrene and rupture, especially in a middle-aged client. d. Infection of the appendix diminishes necrotic arterial blood flow and increases venous drainage. 14. Answer B. A client with appendicitis is at risk for infection related to inflammation, perforation, and surgery because obstruction of the appendix causes mucus fluid to build up, increasing pressure in the appendix and compressing venous outflow drainage. The pressure continues to rise with venous obstruction; arterial blood flow then decreases, leading to ischemia from lack of perfusion. Inflammation and bacterial growth follow, and swelling continues to raise pressure within the appendix, resulting in gangrene and rupture. Geriatric, not middle-aged, clients are especially susceptible to appendix rupture. 15. A female client with hepatitis C develops liver failure and GI hemorrhage. The blood products that would most likely bring about hemostasis in the client are: a. whole blood and albumin. b. platelets and packed red blood cells. c. fresh frozen plasma and whole blood. d. cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma. 15. Answer D. The liver is vital in the synthesis of clotting factors, so when it’s diseased or dysfunctional, as in hepatitis C, bleeding occurs. Treatment consists of administering blood products that aid clotting. These include fresh frozen plasma containing fibrinogen and cryoprecipitate, which have most of the clotting factors. Although administering whole blood, albumin, and packed cells will contribute to hemostasis, those products aren’t specifically used to treat hemostasis. Platelets are helpful, but the best answer is cryoprecipitate and fresh frozen plasma. 16. To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a male client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction? a. “Lie down after meals to promote digestion.” b. “Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages.” c. “Take antacids with meals.” d. “Limit fluid intake with meals.” 16. Answer B. To prevent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, the nurse should advise the client to avoid foods and beverages that increase stomach acid, such as coffee and alcohol. The nurse also should teach the client to avoid lying down after meals, which can aggravate reflux, and to take antacids after eating. The client need not limit fluid intake with meals as long as the fluids aren’t gastric irritants. 17. The nurse caring for a client with smallbowel obstruction would plan to implement which nursing intervention first? a. Administering pain medication b. Obtaining a blood sample for laboratory studies c. Preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube d. Administering I.V. fluids 17. Answer D. I.V. infusions containing normal saline solution and potassium should be given first to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance. For the client’s comfort and to assist in bowel decompression, the nurse should prepare to insert an NG tube next. A blood samp