Portage Final Exam BIOD 171

Portage Final Exam BIOD 171 Portage Final Exam BIOD 171 Final Exam Attempt History Attempt Time Score LATEST 74 minutes 110 out of 120 * Question 1 2 / 2 pts * Some questions not yet graded Which of the following are considered Protista? Select all that apply. Yeast Correct! Algae Bacteria Correct! Amoeba Question 2 2 / 2 pts True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers. Correct! True False Question 3 0 / 2 pts The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply): Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes To produce energy (ATP) Correct! Protein synthesis Ribosomes are located in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells and in the ER of eukaryotic cells. Lipid synthesis You Answered Protein modification and distribution Question 4 5 / 5 pts Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the description. A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum B. Golgi apparatus C. Nucleus D. Cell wall E. Plasma membrane F. Centriole G. Lysosome Correct! 1 Correct! 2 C Correct! 3 Correct! 4 Correct! 5 Question 5 2 / 2 pts The combination of the cell membrane and the outer membrane is referred to as the (select all that apply): Correct! Cell envelope The cell wall is also known as the 'outer membrane' and does not apply. A capsid is relative to a virus. The outer leaflet is only a partial description of the cell membrane. Outer leaflet Capsid Cell wall Question 6 0 / 2 pts G E B A The function of the Golgi is (select all that apply): Correct Answer Protein modification and distribution To produce energy (ATP) Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes You Answered Lipid synthesis Protein synthesis Question 7 2 / 2 pts True or False. All multicellular microorganisms classified as Animalia are autotropic. True Correct! False They are heterotropic. Question 8 0 / 2 pts How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate? Correct Answer 1 ATP You Answered 2 ATP 4 ATP 34 ATP Question 9 2 / 2 pts In the absence of glucose, which of the following cannot be used as alternative energy sources? Select all that apply. Carbohydrates Correct! Nucleic acids Lactose Fatty acid chains Question 10 2 / 2 pts True or False. The β-oxidation pathway is responsible for the anabolism of fatty acid chains. True Correct! False The β-oxidation pathway is responsible for the catabolism of fatty acid chains. Question 11 2 / 2 pts True or False: Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants. Correct! True False Question 12 0 / 2 pts The process of photophosphorylation produces which of the following: select all that apply. You Answered CO2 You Answered H2O Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate Correct! NADPH Correct! ATP Question 13 Not yet graded / 5 pts What is one of the main functions of light reactions? Your Answer: Its main function is to generate more energy in the form of ATP from the photons. Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP. Question 14 2 / 2 pts True or False: Dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light. Correct! True The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur. False Question 15 2 / 2 pts True or False: Following the decolorization step of the Gram stain, Gram-Negative bacteria will appear colorless. Correct! True Even together, the LPS and thin peptidoglycan layer are unable to retain the crystal violet dye during decolorization. False Question 16 Not yet graded / 2 pts Name one substance capable of chemically fixing cells to a slide. Your Answer: Ethanol or methanol. Any of the following are true: Paraformaldehyde, ethanol or methanol. Question 17 Not yet graded / 5 pts You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process. Your Answer: Simple strain. We can use safranin or fuschin dye can be used. Simple stain. You could use any of the following: methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin. Question 18 Not yet graded / 5 pts You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained, it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide. Your Answer: We would expect to see the red cells (TB+) on the blue background which is TB (negative). Useually red stain in the blue bacground confirms TB infection. You would expect to see red cells (TB+) on a blue background (TB negative). Question 19 2 / 2 pts True or False: If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform. Correct! True Giemsa stains are often used in the clinical setting to aid in the diagnosis of blood parasites. False Question 20 Not yet graded / 5 pts Identify what type of electron microscope was used to capture the following image and explain your choice. Your Answer: The image shown is captured by a TEM (Transmission Electron Microscope), Even the image 20nm is visible and its subcellular structure is also visible. The image lacks the outside "shell"as it can give 2D-images. The above image is captured via a Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM). Even at 20nm resolution (inset image), subcellular substructures are still visible. The image lacks the outside ‘shell’ only appearance of SEM. Question 21 0 / 2 pts True or False. The purpose of a quadrant streak is to expand a bacterial population. You Answered True Correct Answer False Question 22 Not yet graded / 5 pts When performing a quadrant streak, the sample is spread across the plate in such as way as to form what? Your Answer: The dilution gradient is formed. The resulting gradient should contain within the growth of indiviual colonies. We use back and forth motion to create growth . A dilution gradient is formed. The resulting gradient should always contain within it the growth of individual colonies. Question 23 Not yet graded / 5 pts In what phase of a dilution streak would you expect to find the lowest concentration of bacteria, P2 or P4? Your Answer: P4 (Phase 4) dilution will contain lowest concentration of bacteria compared to P2 (Phase 2). The order are as follows: P1 P2 P3 P4. The P4 zone bacteria are weakened , thinned and diluted and are found in isolated colonies. P4 (Phase 4) would contain the lowest concentration of bacteria. The phases rank (from highest to lowest), P1 P2 P3 P4. Question 24 2 / 2 pts True or False. When performing a dilution streak a new (or sterilized) loop must be used for each phase. Correct! True Failure to do so would prevent the establishment of a dilution gradient, as the same bacterial concentration would be spread across both phase regions. False Question 25 Not yet graded / 5 pts The number of phases (3 vs. 4) and/or the number of times a loop passes through a previous phase (once vs. multiple times) is acceptable provided what happens? Your Answer: We can accepth the either deviation, provided the resulting gradient contains within the growth of individual colonies. If this is not seen than experiment will be repeated. Either deviation is acceptable in practice provided the resulting gradient contains within it the growth of individual colonies—if not, the experiment must be repeated. Question 26 2 / 2 pts True or False. To restrict the growth of a pathogenic microbe a researcher might decrease an incubator from 37°C to 25°C. Correct! True Pathogenic strains of bacteria tend to grow faster than non-pathogenic strains at 37°C, so researchers may set incubators at 25°C to restrict its growth. False Question 27 Not yet graded / 5 pts When given an unknown bacterial sample the first step is to expand the current bacterial population. Which form of media best suites this need? Why? 1. MSA agar 2. LB media 3. MacConkey agar 4. Columbia CNA agar Your Answer: LB media. The other options are forms of selective media, which means they inhibits the growth of the unkown samples. the culture is expanded first and placed in selective agar plates. Correct Answer LB media. All other options (A, C and D) are all forms of selective media, meaning they may potentially inhibit the growth of the unknown sample. The culture should be first expanded and then place onto selective/differential agar plates. Question 28 2 / 2 pts True or False. Only directly ingesting the pre-formed clostridium toxin (neither the bacteria nor its spores) will cause disease in adults. Correct! True The mature (adult) microbiota is capable of killing the bacteria/spores. False Question 29 2 / 2 pts True or False. There are currently no cures for tetanus. Correct! True Although the symptoms can be treated it is only to manage the discomfort not to cure. False Question 30 2 / 2 pts The alpha-toxin perfringolysin is associated with which medical condition caused by Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria? Tetanus Botulism Leprosy Correct! Gas gangrene The bacterium that produces the alpha toxin perfringolysin is aptly named Clostridium perfringens. Question 31 2 / 2 pts True or False. Pneumonic plague is often characterized by painfully swollen lymph nodes. True Correct! False Pneumonic plague targets the respiratory system while bubonic targets the lymph system. Question 32 5 / 5 pts Identify the following disease: Frost bite Gas gangrene Tetanus Correct! Anthrax Anthrax—the distinct black center at the site of infection is a hallmark of anthrax infection. Question 33 2 / 2 pts True or False. Chlyamida is an obligate parasite and as such can be grown on agar plates alone. True Correct! False An obligate parasite requires a host (viable cells) to be present for its growth. Question 34 2 / 2 pts True or False. Similar to chickenpox, the blisters that appear with shingles can cover the entire body. True Correct! False False. Unlike chickenpox blisters, which can form anywhere, the blisters associated with shingles are localized and limited to small areas. Question 35 Not yet graded / 5 pts While traveling abroad, should you be worried about coming into contact with either the Variola major or Variola minor viruses? Your Answer: No. This disease causing virus had been eradicated since October 1977. Due to global vaccinnation effort, this disease is not active anymore. It is another name for small pox virus. We should not be worried travelling due to these virus. No. Both viruses are variants of smallpox and were eradicated in 1977. You would not need to worry about coming into contact with the virus. Question 36 Not yet graded / 5 pts By whom and where was the first polio vaccine developed? Your Answer: It was developed by Jonas Salk. This was developed in Moscow, Russia. Jonas Salk and his research team developed the polio vaccine at the University of Pittsburgh in 1955. Question 37 Not yet graded / 5 pts A drug company is trying to develop a new drug that will inhibit the release of newly produced viral particles. Would the drug company target hemagglutinin proteins or neuraminidase proteins? Why? Your Answer: Hemagglutinin protein would be the targets as they are directly involved in viral attchment and entry into the host. Neuraminidase are involved in budding and release of new viral particles, so they will not be a target. Neuraminidase (N) proteins are directly involved in the budding and release of new viral particles and would thus be the correct target. Hemagglutinin (HA) proteins would not be advisable targets as they are directly involved in viral attachment and entry into the host cell. Question 38 0 / 2 pts True or False. The viral capsid of HIV is cone shaped and contains ~2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. Correct Answer True You Answered False Question 39 Not yet graded / 5 pts What small (~30nm) single-stranded, non-enveloped RNA virus targets the CNS (central nervous system), causing potentially catastrophic damage to motor neurons? Your Answer: Polio or Poliomyelitis. It enters through the cental nervous system and replicate and damage the motor neurons. Polio, also known as poliomyelitis.