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APEA- Study Guide Exam/155 Questions with Answers

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APEA- Study Guide Exam/155 Questions with Answers

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APEA- Study Guide Exam/155 Questions
with Answers
When performing a visual acuity test the nurse practitioner notes 20/30 in
the left eye and 20/40 in the right eye using the Snellen eye chart. This
means: - -Refer the patient to an ophthalmologist

-The American psychiatric association's diagnostic and statistical manual of
mental disorder defines Munchausen Syndrome by proxy: - -a caregiver
making up or causing an illness or injury in a person under his or her care

-Symptoms of depression are a side effect of which neurotransmitter
medication? - -dopamine

-Which lesion is dark, raised, and asymmetric with irregular border? - -
Melanoma

-A 32-year-old woman presents with dull puffiness of the eyes pronounced
not pitting periorbital edema this finding is suggestive of this condition? - -
Myxedema

-A 42-year-old woman with a past medical history of migraine headaches is
requesting prophylactic medication treatment. Which medication should the
Nurse Practitioner prescribe? - -Amitriptyline (Elavil)

-A pediatric has areas of scaling on the scalp with round patches of alopecia.
this clinical finding is consistent with: - -Tinea Capitis

-What is the appropriate prophylactic medication for an 18-year-old woman
with a past medical history of migraine headaches? - -Propanolol (Inderal)

-Why would a combined hormonal contraceptive be contraindicated in a 36-
year-old patient with a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, obesity,
chronic smoking, and sedentary life: - -Her age and tobacco use

-During the breast examination of a perimenopausal woman, the NP detects
a bloody spontaneous discharge from the right nipple. This indicates further
evaluation. - -An intraductal papilloma

Intraductal papilloma are usually solitary and smaller than 1 cm. They are
located in large lactiferous sinuses or ducts and have a tendency to bleed.

-Rh negative women should receive Rho(D) immunoglobulin at what
gestational time? - -28 weeks

, -When interpreting a complete blood count (CBC) lab report which of the
following results describes the size of the RBCs? - -Mean corpuscular volume
(MVC)

-What medication should be avoided when prescribing prophylactic therapy
for headaches? - -Venlataxin (Effexor)

-What is the mechanism of action of prostaglandin E1 (PG1) in a patient with
transposition of the great arteries? - -To produce vasodilation and adequate
oxygen saturation

-Which of the following complaints best describes lower extremity calf pain
associated with peripheral artery disease: - -A dull pain or cramp

-Which of the following conditions is NOT a typical finding of
hyperprolactinemia in a 47-year-old premenopausal woman? - -
Gynecomastia

-When treating a patient with asthma who is experiencing acute wheezing
which medication should be given to relieve the symptom? - -Short acting
bronchodilator

-Which immunization reduces a patient's risk for infection with the virus that
causes painful localized blistering rash? - -Shingles (herpes zoster) vaccine

-Headache warning signs that need prompt investigation include all of the
following EXCEPT: - -Headache relieved with mild infrequent use of
analgesics

-The client with iron deficiency anemia should be advised to take the iron
supplement: - -on an empty stomach between meals

-Which one of the following statements is true of muchausen syndrome by
proxy? - -Under the supervision of adults other than the abuser, the patient
does not exhibit symptoms

-Which of the following is the most common presenting sign of substance
abuse in adolescents? - -Changes in behavior

-A woman is 11 weeks pregnant and has a maternity history of one full term
vaginal delivery, a set of premature triplets delivered vaginally, and a first
trimester abortion. Using her TPAL system to document her maternal status:
- -Gravida 4, Para 1314

Gravida, Term babies, Preterm Babies, Abort and Living Child

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Uploaded on
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Written in
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