Bioethics Final Review - Multiple Choice Questions With Complete Solutions

A problem that occurs when using a duty-based approach to ethics is: a. the primary emphasis on a person's individual rights b. determining the greatest good for the greatest number of people c. the conflicting opinions regarding what our responsibility is d. remembering the three-step model approach to solving ethical dilemmas e. understanding the difference between what is fair and unfair correct answer: The conflicting opinions regarding what our responsibility is Moral issues that occur as a result of modern medical technology are covered under what specific discipline? a. law b. medicine c. philosophy d. bioethics e. none of the above correct answer: Bioethics When trying to solve an ethical dilemma, it is necessary to a. do what everyone else is doing b. use logic to determine the solution c. do what we are told to do by other d. base the decision on religious beliefs only e. allow our emotions and feelings to guide us correct answer: Use logic to determine the solution The three-step approach to solving ethical dilemmas is based on a. asking ourselves how our decision would make us feel if we had to explain our actions to loved ones b. asking ourselves if the intended action is legal c. asking ourselves if the intended action results in a balanced decision d. a, b and c e. none of the above correct answer: A B and C; asking ourselves how our decision would make us feel if we had to explain our actions to loved ones, asking ourselves if the intended action is legal, asking ourselves if the intended action results in a balanced decision. A utilitarian approach to solving ethical dilemmas might be used when a. allocating a limited supply of donor organs b. trying to find a just decision in which everyone will benefit c. finding a decision based on a sense of duty toward another person d. making sure that no one will "fall through the cracks" and not receive access to care. e. none of the above correct answer: Allocating a limited supply of donor organs An illegal act is always a. hidden b. unethical c. performed with the full knowledge of the healthcare worker d. obvious e. all of the above correct answer: Unethical A practical application of ethics is a. philosophy b. the law c. illegal d. applied ethics e. b and d correct answer: B and D; the law, applied ethics. An employee who is entitled to a fair hearing in the case of a dismissal from a job is an example of a. duty-based ethics b. utilitarianism c. right-based ethics d. justice-based ethics e. c and d correct answer: c and d; rights-based ethics and justice-based ethics Laws that affect the medical profession a. often overlap with ethics b. have a binding force c. are always fair to all persons d. are determined by governmental authority e. a, b and d correct answer: A, B, and D; often overlap with ethics, have a binding force, are determined by a government authority. Modern laws a. may allow some unethical acts such as lying on job applications b. are interpreted by some people to require no ethical responsibility beyond what the law requires c. are not used as a type of yardstick for group behavior d. a and b only e. a, b and c correct answer: a and b only; may allow some unethical acts such as lying on job applications, are interpreted by some people to require no ethical responsibility beyond what the law requires. Sources of law include all of the following except a. regulatory law b. executive law c. statutory law d. common law e. constitutional law correct answer: Executive law Subpoena duces tecum means a. "let the master answer" b. "under penalty, take with you" c. "let the decision stand" d. "the thing speaks for itself" e. "the thing has been decided" correct answer: "under penalty, take with you" Stare Decisis means a. "let the master answer" b. "under penalty, take with you" c. statutory law has been invoked d. constitutional law has been invoked e. "let the decision stand" correct answer: "let the decision stand" Administrative law covers all of the following except a. health department regulations b. licensing of prescription drugs c. internal revenue service regulations d. fraud e. all of the above are covered under administrative law correct answer: all are correct; Health department regulations, licensing of prescription drugs, internal revenue service regulations, fraud. The person who brings the action into litigation is called a(n) a. attorney b. plaintiff c. defendant d. judge e. juror correct answer: Plaintiff A court order that requires a witness to appear in court with certain records is called a a. deposition b. discovery c. subpoena duces tecum d. res judicata e. waiver correct answer: Subpoena duces tecum The common law of the past that is based on a decision made by judges is called a. civil law b. constitutional law c. case law d. criminal law e. statutory law correct answer: Case law The threat of doing bodily harm to another person—stating, for example, "If you won't allow us to continue this procedure, we will have to tie your hands"—is a. assault b. battery c. fraud d. invasion of privacy e. all of the above correct answer: Assault Standard of care refers to that care which a. a reasonable person would use b. ordinary care c. a prudent person would use d. healthcare professionals in a specialties must practice e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above; a reasonable person would use, ordinary care, a prudent person would use, healthcare professional in all specialties. Removing one's clothing in order to allow the physician to perform a PE is a(n) a. invasion of privacy b. defamation of character c. implied contract d. abandonment e. none of the above are correct correct answer: Implied contract According to the medical patient's rights act patient info a. may be given over the telephone without the patient's consent b. must be communicated on a need to know basis c. can always be given out to another physician d. other than test results, cannot be given out to a relative e. can never be given out to a third party correct answer: Must be communicated on a need to know basis The term for a court-appointed person to represent a minor or unborn child in litigation is a. respondeat superior b. advanced directive c. guardian ad litem d. durable power of attorney e. living will correct answer: Guardian ad litem Standard of care refers to a. ordinary care b. type of care given to patients by other practitioners c. only the care given by the physician d. a, b and c e. a and b only correct answer: a and b only; ordinary skill, type of care given to patients by other practitioners in the same locality. The statute of limitations varies somewhat from state to state but is typically a. ten years b. five years c. one to three years d. there is no limitation e. none of the above correct answer: One to three years Respondeat superior means that a. a healthcare employee can act independently of the employer b. the healthcare employee is never found negligent by the courts c. the employer is liable for the actions of the employees d. healthcare employees have a duty to carry out the orders of their employers without question e. all of the above correct answer: The employer is liable for the actions of the employee A process by which a physician in one state is granted a license to practice medicine in another state is a. endorsement b. reciprocity c. statute of limitations d. revocation e. suspension correct answer: Reciprocity Patients' rights to have their personal privacy respected and their medical records handled with confidentiality is covered in the a. statute of limitations b. rule of discovery c. FLEX act d. Medical Patients Rights Act e. Good Samaritan Laws correct answer: Medical Patients Rights Act The prudent person rule refers to: a. the needs of a medical assistant b. the information that a reasonable patient would need c. the type of employee that a physician would wish to hire in his or her office d. the credentials for a malpractice attorney e. none of the above is correct correct answer: the information that a responsible patient would need. When a physician places an ambiguous order, the HC professional a. has a duty to carry out the orders b. can decline to carry out the order c. should immediately notify the physician d. b and c only e. none of the above are correct correct answer: b and c only; can decline to carry out the order, should immediately notify the physician. Both physicians and employees are a. liable in a lawsuit b. have the same responsibility to protect patients confidentiality c. operate under a standard of care d. must be trained to perform a procedure before attempting it e. all of the above correct answer: All of the above: liable in a lawsuit, have the same responsibility to protect patient's confidentiality, operate under a standard of care, must be trained to perform a procedure before attempting it. Under this plan, a healthcare provider is paid a set amount based on the category of care provided to the patient a. AMA b. DRG c. ANA d. HHS e. UNOS correct answer: DRG Medicare patients who are members of HMOs may no, by law a. not make any deductible payment b. select any physician they wish c. appeal a denial of treatment d. have all their nursing home expenses paid e. none of the above correct answer: appeal a denial of treatment A type of managed care in which the selection of providers is limited to a defined group who are all paid on a modified fee-for-service basis is a(n) a. exclusive provider organization b. group practice c. preferred provider organization d. health maintenance organization e. sole proprietorship correct answer: exclusive provider organization A legal agreement in which physicians agree to share a facility and staff but not the profits and losses is a(n) a. solo practice b. sole proprietorship c. partnership d. associate practice e. none of the above correct answer: associate practice The advantage of a corporation is that it a. offers protection from loss of individual assets b. may offer fringe benefits c. will remain in effect after the death of a member d. offer the opportunity for a large increase in income e. a, b, and c correct answer: a, b, and c; offers protection from loss of individual assets, may offer fringe benefits, will remain in effect after the death of a member A physician who is board certified may be addressed as a. diplomat b. fellow c. partner d. associate e. a and b only correct answer: a and b only; diplomat and fellow MCOs are able to manage costs by a. shifting some financial risk back to the physicians b. shifting some financial risk back to the hospitals c. using a fee-for-service payment method d. a and b only e. a, b and c correct answer: a and b only; shifting some financial risk back to the physician and shifting some financial risk back to the hospital. The managed care system a. has a gatekeeper to determine who will receive medical treatment b. provides a mechanism for approval for all non emergency services c. provides care for a fixed monthly fee d. includes HMOs, PPOs, and EPOs e. all of the above correct answer: All of the above; has a gatekeeper to determine who will receive medical treatment, provides a mechanism for approval for all non emergency services, provides care for a fixed monthly fee, includes HMOs, PPOs, and EPOs. This federal legislation provides healthcare for indigent persons and is administrated by individual states a. medicare b. medicaid c. HMO d. PPO e. COBRA correct answer: Medicaid The American College of Surgeons confers a fellowship degree upon it applicants a. whenever a surgeon places a request b. when they complete additional training c. when they have documentation of 50 surgical cases during the previous three years d. a, b and c e. b and c only correct answer: b and c only; when they complete additional training and when they have documentation of 50 surgical cases during the previous three years. A patient rolling up a sleeve to have a blood sample taken is an example of a. standard of care b. informed consent c. implied consent d. advance directive e. agent correct answer: Implied consent A condition in which a patient understands the risks involved by not having a surgical procedure or treatment performed is known as a. standard of care b. informed consent c. implied consent d. advance directive e. agent correct answer: Informed consent The uniform Anatomical Gift Act is applicable for a. persons up the the age of 18 b. person 18 years of age or older c. persons who are mentally handicapped d. very few people e. the purpose of selling organs correct answer: Persons 18 years of age and older Which of these refers to a physician using the same skill that is used by other physicians in treating patients with the same ailment? a. privileged communication b. informed consent c. implied consent d. standard of care e. none of the above correct answer: Standard of care The physician's rights include a. the right to decline to treat a new patient b. the right to receive payment from hospitals for referring patients. c. the right to protect fellow physicians who are guilty to the deception d. the right to publish confidential information about a patient if it is in the physicians best interest e. all of the above correct answer: The right to decline to treat a new patient In what document are patients able to request the type and amount of artificial nutritional and life-sustaining treatments that should or should not be used to prolong their life? a. uniform anatomical gift act b. medical patients rights act c. living will d. standard of care e. euthanasia correct answer: Living will The patient's obligations include a. honesty about past medical history b. payment for medical services c. following treatment recommendations d. a and c only e. a, b and c correct answer: a, b and c; honesty about past medical history, payment for medical services, following treatment recommendations. Exceptions to informed consent include a. telling the patient about the risk involved in not having the procedure b. the discussion of sensitive sexual matters c. not having to explain risks that are commonly known d. all of the above e. none of the above correct answer: Not having to explain risks that are commonly known The Doctrine of Informed Consent a. can be delegated by the physician to a trusted assistant b. may have to be waived in the event of an emergency situation c. does not have to be signed by every patient d. could result in a lawsuit for assault and battery if not performed e. b and d only correct answer: B and D only; may have to be waived in the event of an emergency situation and could result in a lawsuit for assault and battery if not performed. A newspaper reporter seeks information from a receptionist about a prominent personality who has been hospitalized. What info can be given to the reporter? a. none b. the basic fact that the person is a patient c. the name and phone number of the attending physician d. a very brief statement about the person's medical condition e. there are no restrictions correct answer: None Carl Simon, a pharmacy technician, fills a prescription for Coumadin, a blood-thinning agent, for Beth White. He hands Beth the prescription without giving her any instructions. Beth has been taking large doses of aspirin for arthritis. The combination of aspirin and Coumadin could cause excessive bleeding when Beth take them together. What is the legal term to describe a potential liability that Carl may have committed? a. malfeasance b. misfeasance c. nonfeasance d. arbitration e. standard of proof correct answer: nonfeasance Emily king mistakenly administers syrup of ipecac, which causes vomiting, instead of syrup of cola, which soothes the stomach lining, to Jacob Freeman. Jacob immediately begins to vomit. Which term could be used to describes Emily's action? a. res judicata b. res ipsa loquitur c. nonfeasance d. misfeasance e. rider correct answer: res ipsa loquitur Which of the four D's is violated when a physician fails to inform the patient about the risks of not receiving treatment? a. duty b. dereliction c. direct cause d. damages e. none of the above are correct correct answer: dereliction A phlebotomist draws blood from Sam Ford's right arm. Sam experiences pain and numbness in that arm immediately after the blood is drawn. This is an example of what legal doctrine? a. duty b. feasance c. res judicata d. proximate cause e. rider correct answer: proximate cause Allan Walker continues to smoke after his physician warns him that smoking carries the risk of lung cancer. His physician documents this admonition in Allan's medical record. When Allan develops lung cancer, he sues his doctor for malpractice. Allan states that he did not know about the risk of continued smoking. What malpractice defense might apply in this case? a. denial b. assumption of risk c. contributory negligence d. borrowed servant e. b and c both apply correct answer: b and c both apply; assumption of risk and contributory negligence Once the court has decided a case and the appeals process is over, there can be no new lawsuit on the same subject between the same two parties. This is referred to as: a. statue of limitations b. res ipsa loquitur c. res judicata d. contributory negligence e. comparative negligence correct answer: res judicata To cover their employees, some physicians carry additional insurance that is added onto the physicians liability insurance. This is called a: a. liability b. rider c. tort d. cap e. standard of proof correct answer: rider In a medical office, the list of agents for the physician include the: a. nurse, medical assistant, and LPN b. technicians c. cleaning staff d. a and b only e. a, b and c correct answer: a, b and c nurse, medical assistance and LPN, technicians, and cleaning staff. The doctrine of respondent superior does not apply between the physician and the: a. nurse b. medical assistant c. phlebotomist d. pharmacist e. physical therapist correct answer: medical assistant Using a third party to help settle a dispute in a nonbinding decision is called: a. mediation b. arbitration c. malpractice lawsuit d. civil lawsuit e. none of the above correct answer: mediation Vital statistics from a person's life include all of the following except: a. pregnancies b. marriages and divorces c. animal bites d. sensitive information such as rape and abuse e. all of the above are considered to be vital statistics correct answer: all of the above are considered to be vital statistics; pregnancies, marriages and divorces, animal bites, sensitive information such as rape or abuse. A coroner does not have to sign a death certificate in the case of: a. suicide b. death of elderly persons over the age of 90 c. death occurring less than 24 hours after hospital admission d. death from electrocution e. death of a prison mate correct answer: death of elderly person over the age of 90 all of the following vaccines and toxoids are required for children by law: a. measles b. polio c. hepatitis d. a and b only e. a, b and c are all required correct answer: a, b and c are all required; measles, polio and hepatitis The Controlled Substance Act is also known as the: a. Drug Enforcement Administration Act b. Food and Drug Administration Act c. Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act d. Bureau of Narcotics and Dangerous Drugs Act e. none of the above correct answer: Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act Schedule III drugs: a. can be refilled by an order over the phone from the office assistant. b. are allowed only five refills during a six-month period c. require the DEA number of the physician on the prescription d. require the order to be typed on the prescription form e. all of the above correct answer: are allowed only five refills within a six month period An EAP program may help an employee cope with: a. marital problems b. alcoholism and drug abuse c. criminal charges d. a and b only e. a, b and c. correct answer: a and b only; marital problems, alcoholism and drug abuse. Infectious waste a. should be separated from chemical waste at the site of origin b. can be safely removed by a licensed removal facility c. consists of blood and blood products d. may contain the HIV and hepatitis A and B virus e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above; should be separated from a chemical waste at the site of origin, can be safely removed by a licensed removal facility, consist of blood and blood products, may contain the HIV and hepatitis A and B virus. Phenobarbital is an example of a: a. schedule I drug b. schedule II drug c. schedule III drug d. schedule IV drug e. schedule V drug correct answer: schedule IV drug The best method to "waste" or destroy a narcotic is to: a. place it in a medical waste container that is clearly marked b. return it to the pharmaceutical company c. flush it down the toilet only if instructed to do so on the packaging d. do it without any witnesses e. none of the above correct answer: flush it down the toilet only if instructed to do so on the packaging Elder abuse is clearly defined in the: a. Food and Drug Administration Act b. Controlled Substances Act of 1970 c. amendment to the Older Americans Act of 1987 d. amendment to the Older Americans Act of 1974 e. none of the above correct answer: amendment to the Older Americans Act of 1987 In most cases, federal laws a. are better than state laws b. are not followed as closely as state laws c. preempt state laws d. are used when state laws are not effective e. none of the above correct answer: preempt state laws Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination based on a. color, race, and national origin b. religion c. gender d. income level and education e. a, b and c only correct answer: a, b and c only; color, race, national origin, religion and gender. The following acts are covered as amendments under Title VII with the exception of the a. Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 b. Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 c. Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972 d. Civil Rights Act of 1991 e. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 correct answer: Drug-Free Workplace Act of 1988 The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) developed standards in 1991 stating the infectious materials include a. any unidentified body fluid b. amniotic fluid c. saliva in dental procedures d. cerebrospinal fluid e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above; any unidentified body fluid; amniotic fluid; saliva in dental procedures; cerebrospinal fluid The most important act covered under compensation and benefits regulations is said to be the a. workers' compensation act b. social security act of 1935 c. federal insurance contribution act of 1935 d. fair labor standards act e. family and medical leave act of 1994 correct answer: Social Security Act of 1935 Regulation Z of the Consumer Protection Act is also referred to as a. equal credit opportunity act of 1975 b. fair credit reporting act of 1971 c. truth in lending act of 1969 d. employee retirement income security act of 1974 e. workers' compensation act correct answer: truth in lending act of 1969 When making a claim for payment after a patient has died, the claim (or bill) must be a. sent in the name of the deceased person to his or her last known address b. sent to the administrator of the estate of the deceased person c. sent to a collection agency with specified instructions to collect the payment from the next kin d. waived e. none of the above correct answer: sent to the administrator of the estate of the deceased person When using a collection agency to collect outstanding debts (unpaid bills) from a patient a. allow the collection agency to take a tough, aggressive attitude with patients who owe money b. stay closely involved in the process and make frequent follow-up phone calls to the delinquent patient c. it is wise to first threaten the patient that you will send the unpaid account to the collection agency and then give the patient a second chance d. review the delinquent account with the physician or office manager before turning over the account to the agency. e. all of the above correct answer: review the delinquent account with the physician or office manager before turning over the account to the agency ERISA a. controls employee benefit plans b. controls employee pension plans c. determines eligibility d. determines vesting e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above; controls employee benefit plans, controls employee pension plans, determines eligibility, determines vesting. Under Workers' Compensation Act a. employers must pay into a fund to help cover costs when an employee is hurt b. the previous employer never has to pay for the Workers' compensation c. Workers' Compensation is only administrated at the federal level d. employees may not sue non employees e. there is a guarantee of receiving a full salary while on workers' compensation. correct answer: employers must pay into a fund to help cover costs when an employee is hurt Medicare and Medicaid records should be retained for: a. one year b. five years c. ten years d. for the lifetime of the patient e. for an indefinite period of time correct answer: Five years The contents of the medical record include all of the following except a. past medical problems b. informed consent documentation c. patient income level d. family medical history e. a and b only correct answer: Patient's income level Medical record entries should be made a. within 60 days of the patients discharge b. at the physicians discretion c. after the patient gives consent d. as soon as possible e. ten days after the procedure correct answer: As soon as possible The patient a. has the legal right of privileged communication b. owns the medical record c. cannot have any portion of the medical record. d. a and c only e. a, b and c correct answer: Has the legal right of privileged communication When correcting a medical error, one should a. use a professional brand of error correction fluid to make the correction b. erase the error and make the correction c. draw a line through error, write the correction above the error as well as initials d. never make any corrections of the medical record e. none of the above correct answer: Draw line, write correct and initial The medical record is legally owned by the a. patient b. physician c. state d. lawyer e. no one correct answer: Physician Medical records a. provide a record from birth to death b. provide statistics on health matters c. are legal documents d. a and c only e. a, b and c correct answer: a, b and c; provide a record from birth to death, provide statistics on health matters, are legal documents. All of the following are guidelines to use when sending medical records by fax except a. make sure there is a receiver waiting for the fax b. use a cover sheet marked "confidential" c. send the entire medical record via fax d. do not place the original fax in the trash container e. all of the above are correct correct answer: Send the entire medical record via fax An exception to the open-records laws in some states is/are a. psychiatric history b. confidential medical record information such as HIV test results c. safety and criminal records of persons involved in the education of children d. all of the above e. none of the above correct answer: All of above; psychiatric history, confidential medical record information such as HIV test results, safety and criminal record of person involved in the education of children. The records of all adult patients should be kept a minimum of a. two years b. five years c. ten years d. 20 years e. permanently correct answer: Ten years The privacy rule is meant to ensure: a. standardization of health date b. standardization of financial data c. standardization of medical care d. a and b only e. a, b and c correct answer: a and b only; standardization of health data and standardization of financial data An example of a clearinghouse is: a. PHI b. a skilled nursing facility c. a billing service d. a government regulation e. EIN correct answer: a billing service The government organization that investigaes a violation of a patient's medical privacy is called a. OSHA b. OCR c. PHI d. HIPPA e. none of the above correct answer: OCR A network of wireless communication systems used to access patient records is: a. HIPPA b. PHI c. WLANs d. EIN e. ADA correct answer: WLAN The privacy law a. prevents hospitals from sharing medical information with other facilities b. prevent hospitals from sharing registered patients names with the clergy c. does not apply to most police and fire departments d. allows unlimited information to be shared by EMTs e. none of the above correct answer: does not apply to most police and fire departments A violation of HIPPA a. is a criminal offense b. does not carry financial penalty at present c. is not reportable d. does not affect a physician's reputation, as it is just a document e. many have a fine of under $100 for all offenses correct answer: is a criminal defense When implementing HIPPA, physicians and physicians groups should a. hire a privacy officer b. implement a notice of privacy practices c. retain signed authorizations for at least six years d. enter into written agreement with nonemployee service providers e. all of the above correct answer: all of the above; hire a privacy officer, implement a notice of privacy practices, retain signed authorizations for at least six years, enter into written agreement with nonemployee service providers Covered entities include all of the following except a. hospice programs b. medical device companies c. clinical laboratories d. police departments e. skilled-nursing facilities correct answer: police departments Patients rights under HIPPA include the ability to a. examine their medical record b. have a full copy of their medical record c. complain to the HHS if they believe there is a violation of privacy d. a and c only e. a, b and c correct answer: a, b and c; examine their medical record, have a full copy of their medical record, complain to the HHS if they believe there is a violation When patient information is requested via a subpoena you must a. comply and send the entire record immediately b. provide only the minimum necessary standard even if more is requested in the subpoena c. provide all PHI that is requested in the subpoena d. provide PHI only with the consent of the patient e. none of the above are correct correct answer: provide the PHI that is requested in the subpoena Nontherapeutic research: a. will always benefit the research subject b. does not directly benefit the research subject c. is unethical d. should be justified with the benefits outweighing the risks e. b and d only correct answer: B and D only; does not directly benefit the research subject and should be justified with the benefit outweighing the risks double blind test means that: a. neither the patient nor the researcher know who is getting the treatment b. the participants are visually impaired c. the results will not be gained from an objective method for testing d. the control group will eventually benefit from being in the experiment e. there is an unethical practice taking place. correct answer: neither the patient nor the researcher know who is getting the treatment Many professional codes of ethics are based on: a. current laws b. mandates from the government c. early writings of Hippocrates d. outdated value systems e. none of the above correct answer: Early writings of Hippocrates Stem cells are: a. genetically identical cells from a single common cell used to create an identical organism b. master cells in the body that can generate specialized cells c. the same as chromosomes d. the same as gene markers e. none of the above correct answer: master cells in the body that can generate specialized cells. What topics are included under the topic of bioethics? a. stem cell research b. fetal tissue research c. random clinical trials d. a and b only e. a, b and c correct answer: a, b and c; stem cell research, fetal tissue research, random clinical trials. The summary of opinions of the council of ethical and judicial affairs of the AMA a. describes fee splitting as an acceptable practice b. admonishes the surgeon against "ghost surgery" c. admonishes the physician to be sensitive to the need to assist patient in suicide d. describes gene therapy as acceptable as long as it is for the purpose of altering human traits e. none of the above correct answer: admonishes the surgeon against "ghost surgery" Taking away a license to practice medicine is called: a. revocation b. censure c. expulsion d. a and c only e. a, b, and c correct answer: Revocation Medical issues relating to bioethics include: a. harvesting embryos b. DRG c. withdrawing treatment d. HMO e. a and c only correct answer: A and C only; harvesting embryos and withdrawing treatment Conflicts of interest occur a. when there are financial interest present b. if stock is owned by the physician in the company that sponsors the research c. if the researcher can control the results of the research d. if the patient's needs are not considered e. all of the above correct answer: All of the above; when there are financial interest present, if stock is owned by the physician in the company that sponsors the research, if the researcher can control the result of the research, if the patient's needs are not considered. A model for making ethical decisions requires that a. the potential consequences are not revealed in order to provide objectivity b. the alternative of "not doing anything" is not an appropriate consideration c. the ethical issues are defined in vague terms in order to look at all the dimensions of the problem d. the facts be determined by asking who, what, where, when and how. e. all of the above correct answer: The facts be determined by asking who, what, when, where and how The current laws relating to artificial insemination: a. do not forbid artificial insemination b. state that the donor father must provide a portion of the child's support c. provide for the records that relate to the donor to remain open d. clarify the child's legitimacy e. all of the above correct answer: Do not forbid artificial insemination The baby M case was an example of: a. problem encountered with fertility drugs b. problems relating to the practice of eugenics c. problems encountered as a result of the use of a surrogate d. problem encountered due to involuntary sterilization e. problems encountered as a result of genetics correct answer: Problems encountered as a result of the use of a surrogate Ethical issue(s) relating to contraception is/are: a. dispensing contraceptives in schools receiving federal funds b. requiring sex offenders to undergo sterilizations c. providing contraceptives for women on medicaid d. sterilization of mentally incompetent women e. all of the above correct answer: All of the above; dispensing contraceptives in schools receiving federal funds, requiring sex offenders to undergo sterilizations, providing contraceptives for women on medicaid, sterilization of mentally incompetent women A miscarriage is the same as a/an: a. induced abortion b. spontaneous abortion c. drug-induced abortion d. conscience clause e. eugenics correct answer: Spontaneous abortion A genetic disorder that causes severe joint pain, chronic weakness, and infections and is more prevalent in people of African heritage is: a. tay-sachs disease b. hemophilia c. cystic fibrosis d. sickle-cell anemia e. Cooley's anemia correct answer: Sickle cell anemia Genetic testing of the newborn is required by law for: a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Phenylketonuria c. retinoblastoma d. Down syndrome e. Cooley's anemia correct answer: Phenylketonuria A disease that could cause serious birth defects for an unborn child if the pregnant mother is exposed to it during her pregnancy is: a. Down syndrome b. Huntington's disease c. cystic fibrosis d. rubella e. retinoblastoma correct answer: Rubella Withdrawing a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus for genetic testing is called: a. induced abortion b. eugenics c. amniocentesis d. spontaneous abortion e. drug-induced abortion correct answer: Amniocentesis A person appointed by the court to defend a lawsuit on behalf of an incapacitated person is a/an: a. donor b. surrogate c. AID d. AIH e. guardian ad litem correct answer: Guardian ad litem Tay-Sachs disease a. results from an enzyme deficiency b. is more common among people of Eastern European descent c. is curable if diagnosed early d. a, b, and c e a and b only correct answer: A and B only; results from an enzyme deficiency and is more common among people of Eastern European descent The practice of allowing a terminally ill patient to die by forgoing treatment is called: a. active euthanasia b. passive euthanasia c. mercy killing d. a and c e. b and c correct answer: Passive euthanasia An electroencephalogram is used to: a. reverse a coma patient's condition b. measure cardiopulmonary function c. measure brain function d. reverse the condition of hypothermia e. reverse the condition of rigor mortis correct answer: Measure brain function The Uniform Determination of Death Act: a. provides a definition of active euthanasia b. provides a definition of brain death c. is also called the doctrine of double effect d. mandates that everyone entering a nursing home must provide a written document stating the care he or she wishes to receive e. discusses the treatment that might be used for a comatose patient correct answer: Provides a definition of brain death Criteria or standards for death include: a. rigor mortis b. hypothermia c. loss of body color d. biological disintegration e. all the above correct answer: All of the above; rigor mortis, hypothermia, loss of body color, biological disintegration What is the ethical term that is used to morally justify the removal of a cancerous uterus from a pregnant patient? a. mercy killing b. extraordinary means c. ordinary means d. doctrine of double effects e. advance directive correct answer: Extraordinary means Another term meaning death is: a. comatose b. expired c. proxy d. terminally ill e. hypothermia correct answer: Expired A hospice provides for: a. palliative care b. pain medications c. in-patient care d. home care e. all of the above correct answer: All of the above; palliative care, pain medications, in-patient care, home care. Extraordinary care means that when caring for a comatose patient one should include: a. CPR and mechanical breathing b. chemotherapy c. turning and hydration d. a and b only e. a, b and c correct answer: a, b and c; CPR and mechanical breathing, chemotherapy, turning and hydration. The Karen Ann Quinlan case involved: a. mercy killing b. removal of hydration from a comatose patient c. removal of a respiratory from a comatose patient d. a heart transplant e. court order for a surgical procedure on an incompetent patient correct answer: Removal of a respirator from a comatose patient Terms referring to heart and pulmonary function include: a. cardiac b. comatose c. hypothermia d. cardiopulmonary e. none of the above correct answer: Cardio pulmonary