Alpha Immunization Home Study Guide Questions
and Answers.
Under the direction of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, the Healthy
People initiative has identified the following as a goal for 2030: - ANS Increase the
proportion of persons who are vaccinated annually against seasonal influenza
Which of the following diseases have been eradicated worldwide, allowing vaccination
to be discontinued? - ANS Smallpox
Which of the following is one of the five guidelines identified by the Alpha Board of
Trustees in 2019 to assist pharmacists in incorporating immunization activities into their
practice? - ANS Prevention
Opportunities for Advocacy and Collaboration include: - ANS Membership in state
immunization coalition to serve as an expert on policy and practice issues affecting
pharmacy
Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?
a) Contracting measles
b) Maternal antibodies
c) Hepatitis B vaccine
d) Skin barrier - ANS b) maternal antibodies
Children less than what age do not mount an adequate immune response to T-cell
independent immunity?
a) 5 years
b) 11 years
c) 2 years
d) 18 years - ANS c) 2 years
How long does it take for the immune system to provide protection by producing
disease-specific antibodies and memory cells?
a) 21 days
b) 7 days
c) 5 days
d) 14 days - ANS d) 14 days
The National Vaccine Advisory Committee 2013 Standards for Adult Immunization
Practice and the 2016 International Pharmaceutical Federation global report identify
pharmacists as: - ANS Integral to increasing vaccination rates
Which of the following is found in vaccines to evoke an immune response?
a) Antigens
b) Antibodies
,c) Macrophages
d) B cells - ANS a) antigens
Why is spacing and timing of vaccines important?
a) Memory T-cells interfere with immune response
b) Circulating antibodies may interfere with immune response
c) Antibodies interfere with inactive vaccines
d) Antigen load may interfere with immune response - ANS b) circulating antibodies
may interfere with immune response
Which of the following vaccines listed is a live attenuated vaccine?
a) Varicella (VAR)
b) Recombinant zoster vaccine (RZV)
c) Hepatitis B
d) Hepatitis A - ANS a) Varicella (VAR)
Varicella (VAR) is a live attenuated vaccine. The remaining vaccines listed are types of
inactivated vaccines.
Which vaccine technology listed below is an ingredient added typically to inactivated
vaccines to boost its immune response by targeting pathogen recognition receptors that
are expressed on dendritic cells to trigger a pro-inflammatory response? Though this
technology creates a more robust immune response, it can also increase local site
reactions and systemic reactions, such as fevers, chills, and body aches.
a) Conjugation
b) Attenuation
c) MRNA technology
d) Adjuvants - ANS d) Adjuvants
Adjuvants are developed and patented by manufacturers to produce a more robust
immune response to the vaccine. These ingredients target types of pathogen
recognition receptors that, when activated, trigger a pro-inflammatory response that
enhances the body's adaptive immune response. Because of the larger pro-
inflammatory response, this vaccine technology will not only provide a stronger immune
response but also increase the likelihood of local and systemic reactions.
Which of the following is true regarding the use of mRNA in vaccine technology?
a) MRNA vaccine technology requires replication similar to a live attenuated vaccine.
b) MRNA vaccine technology elicits its immune response and protects the host by
altering the host's DNA
c) MRNA is the genetic blueprint that tells your body how to make a particular protein
subunit of a virus which, after being produced, will elicit an immune response.
d) MRNA is extremely stable in a host's body. - ANS c) mRNA is the genetic blueprint
that tells your body how to make a particular protein subunit of a virus which, after being
produced, will elicit an immune response.
,MRNA vaccine technology elicits an immune response in the host by entering the
cytoplasm of a host cell and providing a blueprint on how to create a particular protein
subunit of a virus. Once produced, the protein will elicit an immune response. MRNA is
unstable in the body. To protect the mRNA, it is encapsulated in lipid nanoparticles.
MRNA vaccines do not alter a host's DNA.
Which of the following statements is false regarding polysaccharide and conjugated
vaccines?
a) The conjugate protein used, such as diphtheria, can also provide adequate protection
against itself in addition to the polysaccharide.
b) Conjugated vaccines can be used in children as young as 2 months of age because
they stimulate both B cell and T helper cell immune responses.
c) Conjugated vaccines link a polysaccharide to a protein that stimulates a wider
immune response.
d) Polysaccharide vaccines stimulate B cell or humeral responses only, reserving their
use for patients over 2 years of age.
e) Polysaccharide vaccines use carbohydrates found in the external capsule of the
bacteria as antigens. - ANS a) the conjugate protein used, such as diphtheria, can also
provide adequate protection against itself in addition to the polysaccharide.
Polysaccharide vaccines use a carbohydrate found in the external capsule of bacteria
as antigens and stimulate only a B cell response. Children younger than 2 years of age
typically do not have a mature enough immune system for polysaccharide vaccines to
be effective. Conjugated vaccines link a polysaccharide to a protein that boosts the
immune response to the bacterial carbohydrate. The presence of this protein stimulates
both a B cell and T helper cell response, allowing it to be used in children as young as 2
months of age. The conjugated protein does not add additional protection to another
antigen. For example, diphtheria conjugated with the meningococcal vaccine (MCV4)
does not add protection against diphtheria.
When administering measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) and pneumococcal conjugate
vaccine (PCV13) to a patient at their 15-month appointment, what must be considered
regarding vaccine spacing?
a) MMR and PCV13 should not be administered simultaneously. They must be
separated by a 28-day minimum interval.
b) MMR and PCV13 may be administered simultaneously or must be separated by a
28-day minimum interval.
c) Vaccines should never be administered simultaneously. As such these vaccines
should be separated by a 7-day minimum interval.
d) MMR and PCV13 may be administered simultaneously or at any interval between
doses. - ANS d) MMR and PCV13 may be administered simultaneously or at any
interval between doses.
Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) is a live attenuated vaccine and pneumococcal
conjugate vaccine (PCV13) is an inactivated vaccine. In general, an inactivated vaccine
, can be administered either at the same clinic visit, or at any time before or after a
different inactivated vaccine or live vaccine.
The community pharmacist, while filling discharge orders from the hospital, recognizes
a patient's need for receiving the pneumococcal vaccine during a transition of care to a
personal care home. This is an example of what part of the patient care process?
a) Access
b) Follow-Up, Monitor, and Evaluate
c) Assess
d) Implement - ANS c) Assess
The patient was screened using the data collected during their recent hospitalization.
This occurrence-based screening was triggered from the recent hospitalization. The
next step in the Patient Care Process is to create a plan and then implement it.
Star Pharmacy has been providing influenza vaccines for years and is now
implementing a Hepatitis B vaccine program in their pharmacy next month. A crucial
step in the Pharmacists' Patient Care Process for this vaccine is:
a) Review staffing levels
b) Create a reminder and recall system
c) Purchase the Hepatitis B vaccine
d) Plan a large marketing event - ANS b) create a reminder and recall system
An important aspect of the Patient Care Process for a vaccine with multiple doses, such
as Hepatitis B, is to have a reminder and recall system in place. Patients need to be
informed and scheduled for subsequent doses prior to leaving from their initial
appointment to ensure they become fully vaccinated. This is part of the Follow-up,
Monitor, and Evaluate step of the Patient Care Process.
Which of the following statements best meets the definition of precaution?
a) The risk of vaccinating outweighs the benefits from the vaccine and the patient
cannot be vaccinated.
b) A compelling indication for the patient to receive a vaccine.
c) A condition that may alter or diminish the patient's response or may increase the
patient's risk of a serious reaction to a vaccine.
d) Condition that will likely result in a severe, life-threatening event if the patient
receives the vaccine. - ANS c) A condition that may alter or diminish the patient's
response or may increase the patient's risk of a serious reaction to a vaccine
Precautions include conditions that may alter or diminish a response to a vaccine, when
a patient has a moderate or severe acute illness that might be difficult to diagnose if the
patient experiences side effects from the vaccine, or if giving the vaccine could increase
the patient's risk for a serious reaction to the vaccine. A precaution does not necessarily
mean the patient cannot be vaccinated.
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