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CMN 572 TESTS COMPILATION BUNDLE
CMN 572 TESTS COMPILATION BUNDLE
[Show more]CMN 572 TESTS COMPILATION BUNDLE
[Show more]Order of patient history for OB/GYN exam correct answer: 1) Age 
2) LNMP 
3) Gravidity/parity: TPAL (Term pregnancies, premature deliveries, abortions, living children) 
4) Chief complaint - Open-ended question (e.g. "How can I help you?" or "What kind of problem are you having?") 
5) Present i...
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Add to cartOrder of patient history for OB/GYN exam correct answer: 1) Age 
2) LNMP 
3) Gravidity/parity: TPAL (Term pregnancies, premature deliveries, abortions, living children) 
4) Chief complaint - Open-ended question (e.g. "How can I help you?" or "What kind of problem are you having?") 
5) Present i...
At what age does cervical cancer predominate? correct answer: 40-44 
 
When does HPV usually regress? correct answer: 1-2 years 
 
At what age should Pap smears be started? correct answer: 21 
 
What cervical cancer screening is done from age 21-29? correct answer: cytology every 3 years 
 
What...
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Add to cartAt what age does cervical cancer predominate? correct answer: 40-44 
 
When does HPV usually regress? correct answer: 1-2 years 
 
At what age should Pap smears be started? correct answer: 21 
 
What cervical cancer screening is done from age 21-29? correct answer: cytology every 3 years 
 
What...
What is the patho of type 1 diabetes? correct answer: Is due to an autoimmune B cell destruction that causes absolute insulin deficiency. That's why they MUST be on insulin. 
 
What is the patho of type 2 diabetes? correct answer: Is a progressive loss of B cell insulin secretion and leads to ins...
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Add to cartWhat is the patho of type 1 diabetes? correct answer: Is due to an autoimmune B cell destruction that causes absolute insulin deficiency. That's why they MUST be on insulin. 
 
What is the patho of type 2 diabetes? correct answer: Is a progressive loss of B cell insulin secretion and leads to ins...
When should screening for osteoporosis based on ↓ bone mineral density begin for women? correct answer: 65 yrs for women w/o hx of fractures or secondary osteoporosis 
< 65 yrs for women whose 10 year fracture risk is ≥ the risk of a 65 year old woman without additional factors (i.e. FRAX sc...
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Add to cartWhen should screening for osteoporosis based on ↓ bone mineral density begin for women? correct answer: 65 yrs for women w/o hx of fractures or secondary osteoporosis 
< 65 yrs for women whose 10 year fracture risk is ≥ the risk of a 65 year old woman without additional factors (i.e. FRAX sc...
what is ACHES correct answer: side effects of oral contraceptives, abd pain, chest pain, headache, eye problems, severe leg pain 
 
most common side effect of oral contraceptive correct answer: nausea and fatigue 
 
describe quick start of OC's correct answer: start the day of office visit, but ...
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Add to cartwhat is ACHES correct answer: side effects of oral contraceptives, abd pain, chest pain, headache, eye problems, severe leg pain 
 
most common side effect of oral contraceptive correct answer: nausea and fatigue 
 
describe quick start of OC's correct answer: start the day of office visit, but ...
Hypertension guidelines: Classification of BP correct answer: Normal <120/80 
Elevated 120-129/<80 
Stage 1 hypertension 130-139/80-89 
Stage 2 hypertension >140/90 
*** always based on an accurate measurement and average of >2 readings over >2 occasions 
 
Circumstances for screenin...
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Add to cartHypertension guidelines: Classification of BP correct answer: Normal <120/80 
Elevated 120-129/<80 
Stage 1 hypertension 130-139/80-89 
Stage 2 hypertension >140/90 
*** always based on an accurate measurement and average of >2 readings over >2 occasions 
 
Circumstances for screenin...
Women who were exposed to Diethylstilbestrol (DES) in utero are increased risk for? correct answer: Vaginal carcinoma in female offspring. They are increased risk for infertility and adverse outcomes in pregnancy. 
 
What is the risk involved when performing a D & C in the postmenopausal patient? c...
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Add to cartWomen who were exposed to Diethylstilbestrol (DES) in utero are increased risk for? correct answer: Vaginal carcinoma in female offspring. They are increased risk for infertility and adverse outcomes in pregnancy. 
 
What is the risk involved when performing a D & C in the postmenopausal patient? c...
When should retinopathy screening be done in TIDM, and T2DM correct answer: TIDM: within 5 years of diagnosis 
 
T2DM: at the time of diagnosis 
 
both need rescreens ANNUALLY if glycemia is not controlled OR every 1-2 years if glycemia is well controlled 
 
REFER for laser or Intravenous eye injec...
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Add to cartWhen should retinopathy screening be done in TIDM, and T2DM correct answer: TIDM: within 5 years of diagnosis 
 
T2DM: at the time of diagnosis 
 
both need rescreens ANNUALLY if glycemia is not controlled OR every 1-2 years if glycemia is well controlled 
 
REFER for laser or Intravenous eye injec...
What are the s/s of Chancroid? correct answer: Begins as erythematous papule evolves into pustule and degenerates into a saucer shaped ragged ulcer circumscribed by an *inflammatory wheal.* 
Very tender, produces heavy foul discharge that is contagious 
Painful inguinal adenitis 
May become necrot...
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Add to cartWhat are the s/s of Chancroid? correct answer: Begins as erythematous papule evolves into pustule and degenerates into a saucer shaped ragged ulcer circumscribed by an *inflammatory wheal.* 
Very tender, produces heavy foul discharge that is contagious 
Painful inguinal adenitis 
May become necrot...
Most common causes of infectious cervicitis are: correct answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatic, herpes simplex virus, HPV, trichomoniasis, Mycoplasma genitalium, cytomegalovirus, and bacterial vaginosis 
 
If untreated, cervicitis can result in correct answer: PID, higher risk of in...
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Add to cartMost common causes of infectious cervicitis are: correct answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatic, herpes simplex virus, HPV, trichomoniasis, Mycoplasma genitalium, cytomegalovirus, and bacterial vaginosis 
 
If untreated, cervicitis can result in correct answer: PID, higher risk of in...
What is the normal range for TSH? correct answer: 0.4-4.0 
 
What labs are indicative of subclinical hypothyroidism? correct answer: TSH > 3.0 with normal free T4: subclinical hypothyroidism, usually asymptomatic, monitor closely for development of hypothyroidism. 
 
What are the ADA recs for A...
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Add to cartWhat is the normal range for TSH? correct answer: 0.4-4.0 
 
What labs are indicative of subclinical hypothyroidism? correct answer: TSH > 3.0 with normal free T4: subclinical hypothyroidism, usually asymptomatic, monitor closely for development of hypothyroidism. 
 
What are the ADA recs for A...
Perimenopause result in a slow, steady decreased in cycle length. T/F correct answer: T 
 
Define Perimenopause. correct answer: climacteric before menopause occurs when menstrual cycle is irregular and when other climacteric symptoms or complaints are experienced. 
 
Women experiencing Perimenopa...
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Add to cartPerimenopause result in a slow, steady decreased in cycle length. T/F correct answer: T 
 
Define Perimenopause. correct answer: climacteric before menopause occurs when menstrual cycle is irregular and when other climacteric symptoms or complaints are experienced. 
 
Women experiencing Perimenopa...
Long term use of metformin is associated with what deficiency? Vitamin B12 
 
ADA Guidelines, notes from "Lessons" 
 
Contraindications to use of metformin Creatinine (McPHee p 1234) 
> 1.4 mg/dL for ♀ 
> 1.5 mg/dL for ♂ 
 
eGFR < 30 (ADA, p 26) 
 
Pre-meal fasting glucose targ...
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Add to cartLong term use of metformin is associated with what deficiency? Vitamin B12 
 
ADA Guidelines, notes from "Lessons" 
 
Contraindications to use of metformin Creatinine (McPHee p 1234) 
> 1.4 mg/dL for ♀ 
> 1.5 mg/dL for ♂ 
 
eGFR < 30 (ADA, p 26) 
 
Pre-meal fasting glucose targ...
Scarlet Fever -clinical signs correct answer: Positive rapid strep - group A 
Strawberry tongue 
Circumoral pallor 
sand papery rash 
enlarged tonsils 
Rash blanches except skin folds (Pastia sign) 
 
scarlet fever - treatment correct answer: penicillin. 
If allergic to penicillin erythromycin 
Tr...
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Add to cartScarlet Fever -clinical signs correct answer: Positive rapid strep - group A 
Strawberry tongue 
Circumoral pallor 
sand papery rash 
enlarged tonsils 
Rash blanches except skin folds (Pastia sign) 
 
scarlet fever - treatment correct answer: penicillin. 
If allergic to penicillin erythromycin 
Tr...
What is the most sensitive test for hypo/hyperthyroid? correct answer: TSH (ultrasensitive assay): most sensitive test to screen for hyper and hypothyroidism 
 
What is the normal range for TSH? correct answer: Normal range: 0.4-4.0 mIU/L 
 
What is the labs and values if subclinical hypothyroid? ...
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Add to cartWhat is the most sensitive test for hypo/hyperthyroid? correct answer: TSH (ultrasensitive assay): most sensitive test to screen for hyper and hypothyroidism 
 
What is the normal range for TSH? correct answer: Normal range: 0.4-4.0 mIU/L 
 
What is the labs and values if subclinical hypothyroid? ...
What is the starting dose of metformin? correct answer: 500 mg BID 
 
What is the A1C, Fasting BG, 1hr and 2hr glycemic target for pregnancy? correct answer: <6, <95, <140, <120 
 
According to ADA guidelines, which patient requires initiation of Statin therapy? SELECT ALL 
A: 36yo, Ca...
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Add to cartWhat is the starting dose of metformin? correct answer: 500 mg BID 
 
What is the A1C, Fasting BG, 1hr and 2hr glycemic target for pregnancy? correct answer: <6, <95, <140, <120 
 
According to ADA guidelines, which patient requires initiation of Statin therapy? SELECT ALL 
A: 36yo, Ca...
Compliance; are they taking their BP medication? correct answer: You are seeing a patient in the clinic and their BP is 180/100, they are already on 3 BP mediations. What is the first thing you should consider when interviewing this patient? 
 
aspirin; risk of hemorrhagic stroke correct answer: Y...
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Add to cartCompliance; are they taking their BP medication? correct answer: You are seeing a patient in the clinic and their BP is 180/100, they are already on 3 BP mediations. What is the first thing you should consider when interviewing this patient? 
 
aspirin; risk of hemorrhagic stroke correct answer: Y...
Macule correct answer: Color change in skin, flat surface. 
 
Papule correct answer: solid raised lesion with distinct borders less than 1 cm in diameter. 
 
Nodule correct answer: nodule is raised solid lesion more than 1cm 
 
tumor correct answer: solid mass, larger than a nodule 
 
plaque cor...
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Add to cartMacule correct answer: Color change in skin, flat surface. 
 
Papule correct answer: solid raised lesion with distinct borders less than 1 cm in diameter. 
 
Nodule correct answer: nodule is raised solid lesion more than 1cm 
 
tumor correct answer: solid mass, larger than a nodule 
 
plaque cor...
Which is more potent: Creams or ointments? correct answer: Ointments 
 
McPhee p 100 
 
Dangers of using topical corticosteroids around the eyes? correct answer: Glaucoma or cataracts! 
 
McPhee p 100 
 
How many grams of topical corticosteroid is needed to cover the entire body surface of an adul...
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Add to cartWhich is more potent: Creams or ointments? correct answer: Ointments 
 
McPhee p 100 
 
Dangers of using topical corticosteroids around the eyes? correct answer: Glaucoma or cataracts! 
 
McPhee p 100 
 
How many grams of topical corticosteroid is needed to cover the entire body surface of an adul...
When do you start screening for BP, at what age? correct answer: Start at 3 y 
 
How do you determine the correct size of the BP cuff in Peds? correct answer: Widest cuff that fits between the axilla and the anticubital fossa (so it covers 60%-75% of the upper arm). 
 
What BP cuff size would a ch...
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Add to cartWhen do you start screening for BP, at what age? correct answer: Start at 3 y 
 
How do you determine the correct size of the BP cuff in Peds? correct answer: Widest cuff that fits between the axilla and the anticubital fossa (so it covers 60%-75% of the upper arm). 
 
What BP cuff size would a ch...
what suprising risk factor increases the risk of chlamyida correct answer: oral contraception use (they probably don't feel like they need to use condoms) 
 
what is the incubation period of chlaymyda correct answer: long, 7-21 days 
 
transmission routes for chlaymydia correct answer: sexual or...
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Add to cartwhat suprising risk factor increases the risk of chlamyida correct answer: oral contraception use (they probably don't feel like they need to use condoms) 
 
what is the incubation period of chlaymyda correct answer: long, 7-21 days 
 
transmission routes for chlaymydia correct answer: sexual or...
ICD9 are _______ codes correct answer: Diagnostic codes 
 
Please list the documentation required for each patient encounter. correct answer: -Reason for the encounter and relevant history, physical examination 
findings, and prior diagnostic test results; 
• Assessment, clinical impression, or ...
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Add to cartICD9 are _______ codes correct answer: Diagnostic codes 
 
Please list the documentation required for each patient encounter. correct answer: -Reason for the encounter and relevant history, physical examination 
findings, and prior diagnostic test results; 
• Assessment, clinical impression, or ...
What is: Blood glucose less than 50mg/dl. Complains of weakness, "feel like passing out," headache, clammy hands, and anxiety. Difficulty concentrating and thinking. If uncorrected, will progress to coma correct answer: Severe Hypoglycemia 
 
School-aged child with recent history of viral illness...
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Add to cartWhat is: Blood glucose less than 50mg/dl. Complains of weakness, "feel like passing out," headache, clammy hands, and anxiety. Difficulty concentrating and thinking. If uncorrected, will progress to coma correct answer: Severe Hypoglycemia 
 
School-aged child with recent history of viral illness...
Diuresis in type 1 DM correct answer: Increased urination and thirst are consequences of osmotic diuresis d/t hyperglycemia. This results in loss of glucose, free water, and electrolytes 
 
Weight loss in DM type 1 correct answer: Initially d/t depletion of water, glycogen, and triglycerides; decr...
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Add to cartDiuresis in type 1 DM correct answer: Increased urination and thirst are consequences of osmotic diuresis d/t hyperglycemia. This results in loss of glucose, free water, and electrolytes 
 
Weight loss in DM type 1 correct answer: Initially d/t depletion of water, glycogen, and triglycerides; decr...
Can insulin be left at room temperature? correct answer: yes, up to 1 month without loss of potency 
 
In a T2 DM, what is the beginning dose for significant hyperglycemia? correct answer: 0.5 Units/kg 
 
What is the dosing range (TDD) for T2 DM? correct answer: 0.2-1.5 Units/kg 
 
For T1 DM, wha...
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Add to cartCan insulin be left at room temperature? correct answer: yes, up to 1 month without loss of potency 
 
In a T2 DM, what is the beginning dose for significant hyperglycemia? correct answer: 0.5 Units/kg 
 
What is the dosing range (TDD) for T2 DM? correct answer: 0.2-1.5 Units/kg 
 
For T1 DM, wha...
Adolescent screening correct answer: Between 11 and 21 annual health visit. 
1. deter adolescents from participating in behaviors that jeopardize health 
2. detect physical, emotional, and behavioral problems early and intervene promptly 
3. reinforce and encourage behaviors that promote healthful ...
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Add to cartAdolescent screening correct answer: Between 11 and 21 annual health visit. 
1. deter adolescents from participating in behaviors that jeopardize health 
2. detect physical, emotional, and behavioral problems early and intervene promptly 
3. reinforce and encourage behaviors that promote healthful ...
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