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178 items

NR 507 Week 4 Midterm

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NR 507 Week 4 Midterm The coronary ostia are located in the: (Points : 2) Left ventricle Aortic valve Coronary sinus Aorta Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge? (Points : 2) Trachea Left lung Bronchus Bron...

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ATI MEDSURGE EXAM 2021/ 2022 A GRADE .

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ATI MEDSURGE EXAM 2021/ 2022 A GRADE . 1. A nurse is caring for a client who have a lower extremity fracture and a prescription for crutches. Which of the following client statements indicate that client is adapting to the role of change? -I will need my partner to take over shopping for groceries...

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NR 599 final exam study guide

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NR 599 final exam study guide ● Ethical decision making ○ When making choices about ethical issues based on the standards of right vs wrong. ○ It requires a systematic framework for addressing the complex and often controversial moral questions. ● Bioethical standards ○ Know the defi...

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Summary NR302 HEALTH ASSESMENT

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NR302 HEALTH ASSESMENT • Understand the tasks or the role of the RN with the Nursing Process. As it relates to: o The Nursing Process • Know the difference between Priority Levels of Care: o First-level o Second-level o Third-level • Know what belongs in each database: o Complete ...

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NR302 Health Assessment Exam 1 Review

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I. Understand the nursing process, phases, techniques used in each phase. Assessment: the nurse gathers information about a patient's psychological, physiological, sociological, and spiritual status. This data can be collected in a variety of ways. Generally, nurses will conduct a patient intervie...

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NURS 629 MVU exam 1 questions and answers latest update with complete solution

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NURS 629 MVU exam 1 questions and answers latest update with complete solution How do you measure fundal height -correct answer -symphysis pubis to top of uterus When can you start to hear fetal heart tones? -correct answer -around 12 wks What is quickening? -correct answer -fetal movem...

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NURS 629 EXAM 3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST SOLUTION GUIDE

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NURS 629 EXAM 3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST SOLUTION GUIDE Risk factors related to elevated cholesterol?- correct answer - • Obesity • Diabetes • Hypertension • Family history: o Coronary heart disease prior to age 55 o Hyperlipidemia o Diabetes Most common cyanotic cardiac lesi...

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MVU NURS 629 EXAM 4 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE(A+ exam)

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MVU NURS 629 EXAM 4 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE(A+ exam) Clinical manifestation of physiological jaundice - correct answer - *Usually within first 2-4 days of life *Not lasting longer than first 2 weeks of onset *Due to fast breakdown of RSCs *Liver immature and poor dietary intake. ...

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MARYVILLE NURS 623 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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MARYVILLE NURS 623 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Which of the serum laboratory findings are present in the client with Cushing's syndrome? - correct answers - Increased cortisol, HYPERnatremia, and HYPOkalemia Alice, age 48, has a benign thyroid nodule. The most common treatment involves: - c...

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Maryville NURS 623 Exam 3 With Complete Solution

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Maryville NURS 623 Exam 3 With Complete Solution What is the most common psychiatric disorder in the U.S? -correct answer -Anxiety What are the DSM-5 symptom criteria for a diagnosis of general anxiety disorder? -correct answer -excessive anxiety and worry of variety of things for at least 6 m...

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Maryville NURS 623 Exam 4 with complete solution 2021

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Maryville NURS 623 Exam 4 with complete solution 2021 What is important to note when a patient has traumatic injury - correct answer - If taking Blood Thinners Define delirium - correct answer - Underlying acute cause, abrupt onset, hours to days, reversible, hallucinations, incoherent speech...

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NSG6430 week 4 Quiz with complete solution

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NSG6430 week 4 Quiz with complete solution The nurse practitioner is prescribing a depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injection for a patient. This medication is given at _______ week intervals. - correct answer -12 Although barrier contraception methods are less effective in preventi...

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NURS 624: Adult 2

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Ch. 64—Common Psychosocial Complaints STRESS and ANXIETY • Anxiety—most common psychiatric disorder in the US. o Unpleasant state of physical & psychological arousal that interferes with effective psychosocial functioning o Most commonly presents aged 20-45 years o Mostly women o Affecti...

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MVU NURS 629 EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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MVU NURS 629 EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Three trimesters of pregnancy 1st: week 1-13 2nd: weeks 14-27 3rd: weeks 28 to delivery Naegeles rule of EDB First day of LMP- subtract 3 months, add 7 days and one year Ultrasound to determine EDB 1st trimester: accurate within 7 days 2nd trime...

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MVU NURS 629 EXAM 4 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

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MVU NURS 629 EXAM 4 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS Clinical manifestation of physiological jaundice *Usually within first 2-4 days of life *Not lasting longer than first 2 weeks of onset *Due to fast breakdown of RSCs *Liver immature and poor dietary intake. Clinical manifestation of breast fed jaund...

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NR 228 FINAL EXAM LATEST 2022- Chamberlain College Of Nursing

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1. What are some causes of fluid retention? (select all that apply): A. Excess sodium/sodium retention B. Kwashiorkor C. Water intoxication 2. What can cause a sodium deficiency? (select all that apply) A. Dehydration B. Hypernatremia C. Diarrhea D. Liver Disease: A. Dehydration C. Diarrhea...

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BIOS 256 Final Exam (Latest 2022): Chamberlain College of Nursing

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1. what are male gametes?: Sperm 2. What are female gametes?: Secondary oocytes 3. Embryonic period?: From fertilization through the eighth week of development 4. Fetal period?: Begins at week 9 and continues on until birth 5. Describe the first trimester?: The first trimester is from conception...

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Tcfp HazMat Operations Possible 2022 Questions and Answers

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Tcfp HazMat Operations Possible 2022 Questions and Answers . When responding to hazardous materials/WMD incidents Operations level responders shall be able to preform the following task...: 1. Analyze a HazMat incident to determine the scope of the problem 2. Plan an initial response 3. Impleme...

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TCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 18-21 Test with complete solution TCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 18-21 Test with complete solution

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TCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 18-21 Test with complete solution TCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 18-21 Test with complete solution 1. A personnel accountability report is commonly performed in which situation? Select one: A. As each resource checks in to the command post B. Upon activation of a ...

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Tcfp HazMat Operations Possible 2022 Questions and Answers

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Tcfp HazMat Operations Possible 2022 Questions and Answers 1. When responding to hazardous materials/WMD incidents Operations level responders shall be able to preform the following task...: 1. Analyze a HazMat incident to determine the scope of the problem 2. Plan an initial response 3. Implem...

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TCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 36-37 Test with complete solution

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TCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 36-37 Test with complete solution 1. According to the Environmental Protection Agency classification system, what is the level of protection afforded a suit that fully encapsulates the wearer and includes a self-contained breathing apparatus? Select one: A. C B. ...

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Randomized Practice Final TCFP FF2 2022/2023 Questions and Answers

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Randomized Practice Final TCFP FF2 2022/2023 Questions and Answers 1. Under the Incident Command System, the __________ is responsible for determining the strategic goals for control of an incident. Question 1 options: 1) Incident Commander 2) Operations Officer 3) Planning Officer 4) Adminis...

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TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST 2022/2023 GRADED A+

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TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 1. Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used in commerce is a definition for a:: hazardous material 2. When dealing with a radiological...

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TCFP Exam 2022 Questions and Answers(A+ Solution guide)

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TCFP Exam 2022 Questions and Answers(A+ Solution guide) ratio of the mass of a given volume of liquid compared with the mass of an equal volume of water at the same temperature is: specific gravity 13. Life safety rope should be stored in: coils in rope bags 14. Toxic atmospheres due to smoke an...

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TCFP Prep 2022 Questions and Answers

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TCFP Prep 2022 Questions and Answers 1. the NFPA requires that, at minimum ppe clothing should be cleaned every _______ months a. 12 b. 6 c. 9 d. 14: b. 6 2. National Fire Protection 1001 is ? A. Standard for firefighting professional qualifications B. Standard for Industrial Fire Brigades ...

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NURS 620 Adult 1 Exam 2 Latest 2023 100% Verified -Maryville University

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NURS 620 Adult 1 Exam 2 Latest 2023 100% Verified -Maryville University 1. Which of the following is not a common cause of chronic renal failure? a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Type 1 diabetes c. Hypothyroidism: Hypothyroidism 2. In clinical practice the NP notes an elevation in the creatinine...

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Maryville NURS 620 Exam 3 with complete solution latest 2023 A+ exam

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Maryville NURS 620 Exam 3 with complete solution latest 2020/2021 A+ exam 1. Which of the following is not a common cause of chronic renal failure? a. Polycystic kidney disease b. Type 1 diabetes c. Hypothyroidism: Hypothyroidism 2. In clinical practice the NP notes an elevation in the creat...

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Maryville NURS 620 Exam 4 Questions and answers latest update

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Maryville NURS 620 Exam 4 Questions and answers latest update 1. 23-year-old, sexually active female who presents for her first pap smear. Her history includes no pregnancies. Her first intercourse was at age 14 and has had at least 10 sexual partners if not 12 partners since. Which conditions do y...

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NSG 3100 Exam 4 with complete solutions(2022 Actual test)

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NSG 3100 Exam 4 with complete solutions(2022 Actual test) 1. When the client's serum sodium level is 120 mEq/L, the priority nursing assessment is to monitor the status of which body system?: Neurological 2. While assisting the client with meal selection, the nurse realizes that clients who pract...

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NRNP 6560 Midterm Exam Latest 2022 Already graded A+

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NRNP 6560 Midterm Exam Latest 2022 Already graded A+ 1. Surgery risk classes: Class 1: benefits outweigh risk, should be done Class 2a: reasonable to perform Class 2b: should be considered Class 3: rarely appropriate 2. General rules for surgery: testing: ECG before surgery only if coronary dis- ...

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NR 503 Epidemiology MIDTERM AND FINAL EXAM

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NR 503 Epidemiology MIDTERM AND FINAL EXAM 1. The population of a city on February 15, 2005, was 36,600. The city has a passive surveillance system that collects hospital and private physician reports of influenza cases every month. During the period between January 1 and April 1, 2005, 2,200 new c...

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NR 503 Epidemiology Final Exam ( Version 1) / NR503 Final Exam 2023: Population Health, Epidemiology & Statistical Principles: Chamberlain College Of Nursing | 100 % VERIFIED ANSWERS, GRADE A

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NR 503 Epidemiology Final Exam ( Version 1) / NR503 Final Exam 2023: Population Health, Epidemiology & Statistical Principles: Chamberlain College Of Nursing | 100 % VERIFIED ANSWERS, GRADE A Objectives: Week 1: • Integrate key terms of epidemiology and population health to the Advanced...

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NR 503 Epidemiology Final Exam ( Version 1) / NR503 Final Exam 2023

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NR 503 Epidemiology Final Exam ( Version 1) / NR503 Final Exam 2023 1. The population of a city on February 15, 2005, was 36,600. The city has a passive surveillance system that collects hospital and private physician reports of influenza cases every month. During the period between January 1 and A...

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BKAT ICU Post Test 2023 with complete solution

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BKAT ICU Post Test 2023 with complete solution 1. Nitroprusside purpose: decreases preload and afterload by vasodilation (mainly afterload) 2. Dobutamine mechanism of action: contractility 3. Dopamine at a low-end dose "renal dose": 0.5-4mcg/kg/min increases renal and mesentric perfusion 4. Do...

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FEMA IS-100.C: Introduction to the Incident Command Questions and Answers

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FEMA IS-100.C: Introduction to the Incident Command Questions and Answers Which General Staff member prepares Incident Action Plans, manages information, and maintains situational awareness for the incident?: planning section cheif 2. If the Incident Commanderdesignates personnel to provide public...

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SFSU BIO 230 FINAL EXAM 2023 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION

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SFSU BIO 230 FINAL EXAM 2023 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION 1. Why is homeostasis important?: to maintain a relatively stable environment, within limits. 2. How does the body maintain homeostasis?: through cooperation of multiple organ systems, including the endocrine and nervous system 3. What is a home...

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NR 602 Final exam 2023 all possible questions and answers with complete solution

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1. ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS pap result with high risk hpv 16 cotest in 26 year old no abnormal paps: colposcopy 2. What is included in the well women of an adolescent?: health history menses gynecologic and pregnancy issues psychosocial abuse drugs alcohol use physical exam scree...

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NSG 4060 Comprehensive ATI Practice B 2023

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NSG 4060 Comprehensive ATI Practice B A nurse is assessing a client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 48 hrs ago. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the therapy has been effective? Hemoglobin 14.9 g/dL The nurse should identify that packed RBCs a re administered...

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NR 451 Week 6 Assignment: EBPChange Process Form

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Star Point 1: Discovery (Identify topic and practice issue) Identify the topic and the nursing practice issue related to this topic. (This MUST involve a nursing practice issue.) Hand hygiene protocol to address the clinical practice issue of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs). Briefly descr...

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BIOD 152 AP2 Lab 2 Exam WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION

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They are essential for our intellectual functioning (EX: prisoners in solitary confinement), personality development, and for life sustaining properties (EX: pain). How do we detect changes in the environment through our body? • Sensory Receptors- 1st line of reception. They are structures speci...

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BIOS 256 AP 4 Exam Elaborations

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Week 2: Chapter 24: The Digestive System part two Basic GI Functions • Primary function: movement of nutrient molecules from the external environment to the internal environment. (Absorption of nutrients) Food->Digestion->motility and absorption Pancreas • Gland in the retroperit...

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BIOD 151 ALL EXAMS ANSWERS KEY 2023.

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All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 1. What is the study of the structure of the human body? A. Anatomy B. Physiology C. Anabolism D. Catabolism E. Metabolism A. Anatomy 2. ...

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NR509 / NR 509 Exam 2024/2025 (Latest update) : Advanced Physical Assessment

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This encompasses the questions that are most frequently tested on the NR 509 exam. Well researched resources by our experts at smartprof

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NR511 Final exam 2023

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1. Janet is a 30 year old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspician of cauda equna compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? a. gastrocnemius weakness b. red...

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FEMA Final Exam ICS 100: IS-100.C: Introduction to the Incident Command

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1. Which NIMS Management Characteristic may include gathering, analyzing, and assessing weather service data from technical specialists? A. Incident Facilities and Locations B. Management by Objectives C. Information and Intelligence Management D. Integrated Communications: C. Information and In...

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AAPC CPC exam prep Compliance and Regulatory Exam 2023

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1. What document is referenced to when looking for potentialproblem areas identified by the government indicatingscrutiny of the services within the coming year?: A) OIG Compliance Plan Guidance B) OIG Security Summary C) OIG Work Plan D) OIG Investigation Plan: C (Rationale: Twice a year, the O...

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AAPC CPC Final Exam 2023

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1. What type of provider goes through approximately 26 1/2 months of educa- tion and is licensed to practice medicine with the oversight of a physician?- : Physician Assistant (PA) 2. The describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures, or technologies are considered medic...

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AAPC Official CPC Certification Study Guide Notes 2023

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1. "hold harmless clause": * found in some non-Medicare health plan contracts * prohibits billing to patient for anything beyond deductibles and co-pays. 2. A compliance plan may offer several benefits, including:: * more accurate payment of claims * fewer billing mistakes * improved documenta...

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Webce Life and Health Question and Answers Latest 2023

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1. Representations and Warranties: Representations are statements the appli- cant makes on an application that are deemed to be true to the applicant's best knowledge. Warranties are statements the insurer makes in the contract. 2. Underwriting vs. Actuarial Departments: Two related insurance comp...

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NRP Final Exam Verified Question and Answers 2023

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1. Your team has provided face-mask PPV with chest movement for 30 sec- onds. When is placement of an endotracheal tube strongly recommended?- : The baby's heart rate remains less than 100 bpm and is not increasing. 2. During a delivery, when and where should a person with intubation skills be av...

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NRP 8th Edition Test Questions and Answers (Latest 2023 – 2024) 100% Correct

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1. What is the single most important and effective step in neonatal resusci- tation?: Ventilation of the newborn's lungs 2. Abnormal Transition Findings: -Irregular Breathing, absent breathing, or rapid breathing -Slow or fast heart rate -Decreased Muscle Tone -Pale Skin or Blue Skin -Low oxyg...

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NRP 8TH Edition Final Exam Questions And Answers Latest Update 2023

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1. What is the single most important and effective step in neonatal resusci- tation?: Ventilation of the newborn's lungs 2. Abnormal Transition Findings: -Irregular Breathing, absent breathing, or rapid breathing -Slow or fast heart rate -Decreased Muscle Tone -Pale Skin or Blue Skin -Low oxyg...

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NRP 2023 Questions and Answers with Verified Solutions

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1. After the initial steps of newborn care, a baby is apneic. What is the most important and effective action to take in the resuscitation of this baby? Provide positive-pressure ventilation. Perform chest compressions. Provide additional vigorous stimulation Provide supplemental oxygen.: Provide...

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NRP 8th Edition Quiz Answers Part-1 Pre-assessment 2023 (Graded A+)

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1. When is the placement of endotracheal tube recommended?: A- HR<100 2. Intubation skills be available?: A- In hospital and immediately available 3. Confirming endotracheal tube: C- exhaled Co2 and inc HR 4. Co2 detector not yellow: D- Low cardiac output 5. 8th edition cardiac monitor recomm...

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Latest Prometric CNA Exam 100% verified

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1. A resident often carries a doll with her, treating it like her baby. One day she is wandering around crying that she can't find her baby. The nurse aide should: offer comfort to the resident and help her look for her baby. 2. A nurse aid is asked to change a urinary drainage bag attached to an ...

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NSG 526 Exam 2 2023 With complete solution (Graded A+)

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1. Group Therapy primary purpose: The primary purpose of group therapy is to facilitate changes by the patient to address identified problems. 2. A technique for dealing with an over talkative client and silence from other participants in a group during therapy: make an observation about the group...

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MARYVILLE NURS 623 EXAM 2 2023 (Graded A+) With complete Solution

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MARYVILLE NURS 623 EXAM 2 2023 (Graded A+) With complete Solution

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NURS 629 MVU exam 1 2023 Questions and Answers latest update with complete solution

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NURS 629 MVU exam 1 2023 Questions and Answers latest update with complete solution

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NR-602-Week 2 Quiz Questions and Answers 2023 with verified solutions

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1. The Tanner scale (5 stages) of sexual maturity rating allows for accurate classification of physical pubertal maturation. During the examination of your patient, you notice that the pubic hair is increased in quantity, is darker, and is present in the typical female triangle but in a smaller quan...

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NSG 533 Adv Pharm: Module 1: GI: Exam 2023 With complete solution

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1. Which drug class is most effective in treating erosive lesions:?: PPIs 2. Name 4 H2RAs:: Cimetidine (Tagamet) Famotidine (Pepcid) Ranitidine (Zantac) Nizatidine (Axid) 3. What is the action of H2RAs?: Decrease acid secretion by blocking histamine 2-receptors in gastric parietal cells 4. Name ...

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Pharm Exam 3 Maryville NURS 615 100% Correctly answered 2021,2022,2023 verified

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1. How do antigout medications work?: by inhibiting the infiltration and phago- cytosis of leukocytes, thus decreasing the breakdown of uric acid to urate crystals. 2. Deposition of urate crystals causes: pain and inflammation 3. What is Colchicine: anti-gout medication 4. how does Colchicine wor...

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Nursing Exam 4 2023 / Verified with complete solution

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1. What is the best description of pharmacokinetics?: The study of how med- ications enter the body, reach their site of action, metabolize, and excretion 2. Which order is written correctly? A) Aspirin 2 tablets prn B) Haloperidol (Haldol) ½ tablet at bedtime C) Zolpidem (Ambien) 5 mg PO at ...

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NURS 660 EXAM 3 2023 With verified solutions

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1. What is the medication that is the antidote for alprazolam?: flumazenil 2. What is the MOA of pregabalin that makes it alleviate pain for people with fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue?: binds to the alpha 2 delta sub-units of voltage sensitive calcium channels 3. What is an antagonist of caffeine...

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NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Test 1 Week 4 2023 Solved Questions and Answers

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1. Which of the following SSRIs requires up to a 5-week washout period because of the long half-life of its potent active metabolite? A. Escitalopram B. Fluvoxamine C. Fluoxetine D. Sertraline: C 2. Which of the following symptoms is most likely to improve within approx- imately 1 week of sta...

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CU NR 546 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

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1. How does reviewing the genetic makeup of a client help guide the PMHNP in selecting medication for clients?: Genetic testing can assist by providing more information on how clients may respond to certain psychotropic medications, as well as providing information on how a client may break down and...

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NR546 Psychopharm Midterm Exam Questions With Complete Solution 2023

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1. How does the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC) affect the amygdala?: inhibits and activates the amygdala 2. Wernicke's area is associated with which of the following?: speech com- prehension 3. The limbic system is associated with which of the following: emotion and learning 4. Which brain structure...

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NR546 – Neurotransmission Questions and Answers 2023

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1. How do neurotransmitters work?: Once it crosses the gap, it is taken up by the post-synaptic receptor, i.e. the dendrite of the next neuron. The chemical message is converted back into an electrical impulse and the process of transmission begins again. Each one has its own specific molecular st...

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NR-503 Epidemiology final Exam 2023 with complete verified solution

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1. Kleinman explanatory Model: Eliciting the patient's (explanatory) model gives the physician knowledge of the beliefs the patient holds about his illness, the personal and social meaning he attaches to his disorder, his expectations about what will happen to him and what the doctor will do, and h...

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NRP 8th Edition Test 2023 Questions and Answers With complete solution

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1. Your team has provided face-mask PPV with chest movement for 30 sec- onds. When is placement of an endotracheal tube strongly recommended?- : The baby's heart rate remains less than 100 bpm and is not increasing. 2. During a delivery, when and where should a person with intubation skills be av...

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MVU NURS 629 EXAM 4 2023 Questions and Answers with complete solution

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1. Clinical manifestation of physiological jaundice: *Usually within first 2-4 days of life *Not lasting longer than first 2 weeks of onset *Due to fast breakdown of RSCs *Liver immature and poor dietary intake. 2. Clinical manifestation of breast fed jaundice: *Usually within first few weeks to...

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NURS 629 MVU exam 1 2022 with complete solution – Maryville/ Graded A+

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1. How do you measure fundal height: symphysis pubis to top of uterus 2. When can you start to hear fetal heart tones?: around 12 wks 3. What is quickening?: fetal movements felt by the mother 4. When is quickening felt: between 16-20 weeks 5. Abnormal Complaints in first trimester: 1st trimeste...

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California post exam study guide(PELLETB). Part 1 (Clarity) 2023 Questions and Answers with 100% Complete and Verified solutions

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A. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial she felt she received justice B. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial. She felt she received justice. CORRECT ANS B. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial. She felt she received justice.(answer a is ...

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Colorado POST (Test 1) 2023 Questions and Answers with 100% Complete and Verified solutions

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What is the age requirement for safety belts? - CORRECT ANS Under 16, must be restrained Which title of the CRS covers traffic? - CORRECT ANS Title 42 Title 42 includes - CORRECT ANS Title, Article, Part, Common Code, Points, Fine Are traffic infractions arrestable offenses? - CORRECT ANS No ...

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Colorado Post Review 2023 Questions and Answers with 100% Complete and Verified solutions

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What is Sensory Distortion? - CORRECT ANS An Officer may hallucinate that an Offender has already shot him How Does an Officer React to a Threat to Another Person? - CORRECT ANS Locate, React, Control and Identify The Simplest Way for an Officer to Relieve Stress? - CORRECT ANS Deep Belly Br...

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Red Cross Lifeguard Online Test Exam Questions and Answers 2023 Already Passed Satisfaction Guaranteed

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An AED indicates that "no shock is advised." Which of the following is most appropriate to do next? - CORRECT ANSWER Perform CPR for about 2 minutes Based on which of the following signs and symptoms would you determine that a victim is experiencing respiratory distress? - CORRECT ANSWER Gasp...

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Red Cross Lifeguard Online Test Exam Questions and Answers 2023 Already Passed Satisfaction Guaranteed

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An AED indicates that "no shock is advised." Which of the following is most appropriate to do next? - CORRECT ANSWER Perform CPR for about 2 minutes Based on which of the following signs and symptoms would you determine that a victim is experiencing respiratory distress? - CORRECT ANSWER Gasp...

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AAPC CPC 2021 Exam Study Guide 2023 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY PASSED

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Documentation (content) - CORRECT ANSWER Proper code assignment is determined both by _____________ in the medical record and by the unique rules that govern each code set in that instance An auditor - CORRECT ANSWER The role a coder may take on to verify that the documentation supports the c...

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AAPC CPC Final Exam Exam Study Guide 2023 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY PASSED

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When coding in operative report what action would NOT be recommended? - CORRECT ANSWER Coding from the header with out reading the body of the report If an NCD doesn't exist for a particular service/procedure performed on a Medicare patient who determines coverage? - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare ...

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AAPC - Medical Coding CPC-H Chapter 1 Exam Study Guide 2023 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY PASSED

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Many coding professionals go on to find work as: - CORRECT ANSWER Consultant A medical record contains information on all but what areas? - CORRECT ANSWER Financial records Technicians who specialize in coding are called: - CORRECT ANSWER Coding specialists EHR stands for: - CORRECT ANSWER ...

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AAPC CPC FINAL 2023 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY PASSED

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Human cell can be categorized into gametes (Sperm & egg cells) and somatic cells, which include all cells other than gametes. Each somatic cell nucleus has 46 chromosomes in 23 pairs. These are diploid cells, and the individual’s fatherand mother each donate on chromosome per pair. New somatic...

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To assess whether there is any improvement in a patient's dysuria, which question will the nurse ask? a."Do you have to urinate at night?" b."Do you have blood in your urine?" c."Do you have to urinate frequently?" d."Do you have pain when you urinate?" - ANS D. Dysuria is painful uri...

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1. Stages of CKD: o Stages - 5 stages 80 - 120 ml/min § 1: Kidney damage (protein in the urine) and Normal GFR > 90 § 2: Mild decrease in GFR 60 - 89 § 3a: Mild-Mod. GFR 45 - 59 § 3b: Mod-severe GFR 30 - 44 § 4: Severe decrease GFR 15 - 29 § 5: ESRD GFR < 15, uremia, cardiovascular...

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