Package deal
Specially Tailored Package (master stroke)
Specially Tailored Package (master stroke)
[Show more]Specially Tailored Package (master stroke)
[Show more]NR 507 Week 4 Midterm 
The coronary ostia are located in the: (Points : 2) 
 Left ventricle Aortic valve Coronary sinus 
Aorta 
 
Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge? (Points : 2) 
 Trachea Left lung Bronchus Bron...
Preview 3 out of 23 pages
Add to cartNR 507 Week 4 Midterm 
The coronary ostia are located in the: (Points : 2) 
 Left ventricle Aortic valve Coronary sinus 
Aorta 
 
Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge? (Points : 2) 
 Trachea Left lung Bronchus Bron...
ATI MEDSURGE EXAM 2021/ 2022 A GRADE . 
1.	A nurse is caring for a client who have a lower extremity fracture and a prescription for crutches. Which of the following client statements indicate that client is adapting to the role of change? 
-I will need my partner to take over shopping for groceries...
Preview 4 out of 54 pages
Add to cartATI MEDSURGE EXAM 2021/ 2022 A GRADE . 
1.	A nurse is caring for a client who have a lower extremity fracture and a prescription for crutches. Which of the following client statements indicate that client is adapting to the role of change? 
-I will need my partner to take over shopping for groceries...
NR 599 final exam study guide 
●	Ethical decision making 
○	When making choices about ethical issues based on the standards of right vs wrong. 
○	It requires a systematic framework for addressing the complex and often controversial moral questions. 
●	Bioethical standards 
○	Know the defi...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartNR 599 final exam study guide 
●	Ethical decision making 
○	When making choices about ethical issues based on the standards of right vs wrong. 
○	It requires a systematic framework for addressing the complex and often controversial moral questions. 
●	Bioethical standards 
○	Know the defi...
NR302 HEALTH ASSESMENT 
•	Understand the tasks or the role of the RN with the Nursing Process. As it relates to: 
o	The Nursing Process 
 
•	Know the difference between Priority Levels of Care: 
o	First-level 
o	Second-level 
o	Third-level 
 
•	Know what belongs in each database: 
o	Complete 
...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartNR302 HEALTH ASSESMENT 
•	Understand the tasks or the role of the RN with the Nursing Process. As it relates to: 
o	The Nursing Process 
 
•	Know the difference between Priority Levels of Care: 
o	First-level 
o	Second-level 
o	Third-level 
 
•	Know what belongs in each database: 
o	Complete 
...
I.	Understand the nursing process, phases, techniques used in each phase. 
Assessment: the nurse gathers information about a patient's psychological, physiological, sociological, and spiritual status. This data can be collected in a variety of ways. Generally, nurses will conduct a patient intervie...
Preview 3 out of 22 pages
Add to cartI.	Understand the nursing process, phases, techniques used in each phase. 
Assessment: the nurse gathers information about a patient's psychological, physiological, sociological, and spiritual status. This data can be collected in a variety of ways. Generally, nurses will conduct a patient intervie...
1x sold
NURS 629 MVU exam 1 questions and answers latest update with complete solution 
How do you measure fundal height -correct answer -symphysis pubis to top of uterus 
 
When can you start to hear fetal heart tones? -correct answer -around 12 wks 
 
What is quickening? -correct answer -fetal movem...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartNURS 629 MVU exam 1 questions and answers latest update with complete solution 
How do you measure fundal height -correct answer -symphysis pubis to top of uterus 
 
When can you start to hear fetal heart tones? -correct answer -around 12 wks 
 
What is quickening? -correct answer -fetal movem...
NURS 629 EXAM 3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST SOLUTION GUIDE 
Risk factors related to elevated cholesterol?- correct answer - • Obesity 
• Diabetes 
• Hypertension 
• Family history: 
o Coronary heart disease prior to age 55 
o Hyperlipidemia 
o Diabetes	 
 
Most common cyanotic cardiac lesi...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartNURS 629 EXAM 3 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS LATEST SOLUTION GUIDE 
Risk factors related to elevated cholesterol?- correct answer - • Obesity 
• Diabetes 
• Hypertension 
• Family history: 
o Coronary heart disease prior to age 55 
o Hyperlipidemia 
o Diabetes	 
 
Most common cyanotic cardiac lesi...
MVU NURS 629 EXAM 4 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE(A+ exam) 
Clinical manifestation of physiological jaundice - correct answer - *Usually within first 2-4 days of life 
*Not lasting longer than first 2 weeks of onset 
*Due to fast breakdown of RSCs 
*Liver immature and poor dietary intake. 
 ...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartMVU NURS 629 EXAM 4 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION LATEST UPDATE(A+ exam) 
Clinical manifestation of physiological jaundice - correct answer - *Usually within first 2-4 days of life 
*Not lasting longer than first 2 weeks of onset 
*Due to fast breakdown of RSCs 
*Liver immature and poor dietary intake. 
 ...
MARYVILLE NURS 623 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
Which of the serum laboratory findings are present in the client with Cushing's syndrome? - correct answers - Increased cortisol, HYPERnatremia, and HYPOkalemia 
 
Alice, age 48, has a benign thyroid nodule. The most common treatment involves: - c...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartMARYVILLE NURS 623 EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
Which of the serum laboratory findings are present in the client with Cushing's syndrome? - correct answers - Increased cortisol, HYPERnatremia, and HYPOkalemia 
 
Alice, age 48, has a benign thyroid nodule. The most common treatment involves: - c...
Maryville NURS 623 Exam 3 With Complete Solution 
What is the most common psychiatric disorder in the U.S? -correct answer -Anxiety 
 
What are the DSM-5 symptom criteria for a diagnosis of general anxiety disorder? -correct answer -excessive anxiety and worry of variety of things for at least 6 m...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartMaryville NURS 623 Exam 3 With Complete Solution 
What is the most common psychiatric disorder in the U.S? -correct answer -Anxiety 
 
What are the DSM-5 symptom criteria for a diagnosis of general anxiety disorder? -correct answer -excessive anxiety and worry of variety of things for at least 6 m...
Maryville NURS 623 Exam 4 with complete solution 2021 
What is important to note when a patient has traumatic injury - correct answer - If taking Blood Thinners 
 
Define delirium - correct answer - Underlying acute cause, abrupt onset, hours to days, reversible, hallucinations, incoherent speech...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartMaryville NURS 623 Exam 4 with complete solution 2021 
What is important to note when a patient has traumatic injury - correct answer - If taking Blood Thinners 
 
Define delirium - correct answer - Underlying acute cause, abrupt onset, hours to days, reversible, hallucinations, incoherent speech...
NSG6430 week 4 Quiz with complete solution 
 
The nurse practitioner is prescribing a depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injection for 
a patient. This medication is given at _______ week intervals. - correct answer -12 
 
Although barrier contraception methods are less effective in preventi...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartNSG6430 week 4 Quiz with complete solution 
 
The nurse practitioner is prescribing a depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injection for 
a patient. This medication is given at _______ week intervals. - correct answer -12 
 
Although barrier contraception methods are less effective in preventi...
Ch. 64—Common Psychosocial Complaints 
STRESS and ANXIETY 
•	Anxiety—most common psychiatric disorder in the US. 
o	Unpleasant state of physical & psychological arousal that interferes with effective psychosocial functioning 
o	Most commonly presents aged 20-45 years 
o	Mostly women 
o	Affecti...
Preview 4 out of 33 pages
Add to cartCh. 64—Common Psychosocial Complaints 
STRESS and ANXIETY 
•	Anxiety—most common psychiatric disorder in the US. 
o	Unpleasant state of physical & psychological arousal that interferes with effective psychosocial functioning 
o	Most commonly presents aged 20-45 years 
o	Mostly women 
o	Affecti...
MVU NURS 629 EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
Three trimesters of pregnancy 
1st: week 1-13 
2nd: weeks 14-27 
3rd: weeks 28 to delivery 
 
Naegeles rule of EDB 
First day of LMP- subtract 3 months, add 7 days and one year 
 
Ultrasound to determine EDB 
1st trimester: accurate within 7 days 
2nd trime...
Preview 3 out of 20 pages
Add to cartMVU NURS 629 EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
Three trimesters of pregnancy 
1st: week 1-13 
2nd: weeks 14-27 
3rd: weeks 28 to delivery 
 
Naegeles rule of EDB 
First day of LMP- subtract 3 months, add 7 days and one year 
 
Ultrasound to determine EDB 
1st trimester: accurate within 7 days 
2nd trime...
MVU NURS 629 EXAM 4 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
Clinical manifestation of physiological jaundice 
*Usually within first 2-4 days of life 
*Not lasting longer than first 2 weeks of onset 
*Due to fast breakdown of RSCs 
*Liver immature and poor dietary intake. 
 
Clinical manifestation of breast fed jaund...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartMVU NURS 629 EXAM 4 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 
Clinical manifestation of physiological jaundice 
*Usually within first 2-4 days of life 
*Not lasting longer than first 2 weeks of onset 
*Due to fast breakdown of RSCs 
*Liver immature and poor dietary intake. 
 
Clinical manifestation of breast fed jaund...
6x sold
1. What are some causes of fluid retention? (select all that apply): A. Excess 
sodium/sodium retention 
B. Kwashiorkor 
C. Water intoxication 
2. What can cause a sodium deficiency? (select all that apply) 
A. Dehydration 
B. Hypernatremia 
C. Diarrhea 
D. Liver Disease: A. Dehydration 
C. Diarrhea...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cart1. What are some causes of fluid retention? (select all that apply): A. Excess 
sodium/sodium retention 
B. Kwashiorkor 
C. Water intoxication 
2. What can cause a sodium deficiency? (select all that apply) 
A. Dehydration 
B. Hypernatremia 
C. Diarrhea 
D. Liver Disease: A. Dehydration 
C. Diarrhea...
1. what are male gametes?: Sperm 
2. What are female gametes?: Secondary oocytes 
3. Embryonic period?: From fertilization through the eighth week of development 
4. Fetal period?: Begins at week 9 and continues on until birth 
5. Describe the first trimester?: The first trimester is from conception...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cart1. what are male gametes?: Sperm 
2. What are female gametes?: Secondary oocytes 
3. Embryonic period?: From fertilization through the eighth week of development 
4. Fetal period?: Begins at week 9 and continues on until birth 
5. Describe the first trimester?: The first trimester is from conception...
Tcfp HazMat Operations Possible 2022 Questions and Answers 
. When responding to hazardous materials/WMD incidents Operations level 
responders shall be able to preform the following task...: 1. Analyze a HazMat 
incident to determine the scope of the problem 
2. Plan an initial response 
3. Impleme...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartTcfp HazMat Operations Possible 2022 Questions and Answers 
. When responding to hazardous materials/WMD incidents Operations level 
responders shall be able to preform the following task...: 1. Analyze a HazMat 
incident to determine the scope of the problem 
2. Plan an initial response 
3. Impleme...
TCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 18-21 Test with complete solution 
TCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 18-21 Test with complete solution 
1. A personnel accountability report is commonly performed in which situation? 
Select one: 
A. As each resource checks in to the command post 
B. Upon activation of a ...
Preview 4 out of 36 pages
Add to cartTCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 18-21 Test with complete solution 
TCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 18-21 Test with complete solution 
1. A personnel accountability report is commonly performed in which situation? 
Select one: 
A. As each resource checks in to the command post 
B. Upon activation of a ...
Tcfp HazMat Operations Possible 2022 Questions and Answers 
1. When responding to hazardous materials/WMD incidents Operations level 
responders shall be able to preform the following task...: 1. Analyze a HazMat 
incident to determine the scope of the problem 
2. Plan an initial response 
3. Implem...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartTcfp HazMat Operations Possible 2022 Questions and Answers 
1. When responding to hazardous materials/WMD incidents Operations level 
responders shall be able to preform the following task...: 1. Analyze a HazMat 
incident to determine the scope of the problem 
2. Plan an initial response 
3. Implem...
TCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 36-37 Test with complete solution 
1. According to the Environmental Protection Agency classification system, 
what is the level of protection afforded a suit that fully encapsulates the 
wearer and includes a self-contained breathing apparatus? 
Select one: 
A. C 
B. ...
Preview 3 out of 18 pages
Add to cartTCFP Firefighter I/II Chapters 36-37 Test with complete solution 
1. According to the Environmental Protection Agency classification system, 
what is the level of protection afforded a suit that fully encapsulates the 
wearer and includes a self-contained breathing apparatus? 
Select one: 
A. C 
B. ...
Randomized Practice Final TCFP FF2 2022/2023 Questions and Answers 
1. Under the Incident Command System, the __________ is responsible for 
determining the strategic goals for control of an incident. 
Question 1 options: 
1) Incident Commander 
2) Operations Officer 
3) Planning Officer 
4) Adminis...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartRandomized Practice Final TCFP FF2 2022/2023 Questions and Answers 
1. Under the Incident Command System, the __________ is responsible for 
determining the strategic goals for control of an incident. 
Question 1 options: 
1) Incident Commander 
2) Operations Officer 
3) Planning Officer 
4) Adminis...
TCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 
1. Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used 
in commerce is a definition for a:: hazardous material 
2. When dealing with a radiological...
Preview 4 out of 34 pages
Add to cartTCFP & GFD HAZMAT AWARENESS/OPS TEST 2022/2023 GRADED A+ 
1. Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used 
in commerce is a definition for a:: hazardous material 
2. When dealing with a radiological...
TCFP Exam 2022 Questions and Answers(A+ Solution guide) 
ratio of the mass of a given volume of liquid compared with the mass 
of an equal volume of water at the same temperature is: specific gravity 
13. Life safety rope should be stored in: coils in rope bags 
14. Toxic atmospheres due to smoke an...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartTCFP Exam 2022 Questions and Answers(A+ Solution guide) 
ratio of the mass of a given volume of liquid compared with the mass 
of an equal volume of water at the same temperature is: specific gravity 
13. Life safety rope should be stored in: coils in rope bags 
14. Toxic atmospheres due to smoke an...
TCFP Prep 2022 Questions and Answers 
1. the NFPA requires that, at minimum ppe clothing should be cleaned every 
_______ months 
a. 12 
b. 6 
c. 9 
d. 14: b. 6 
2. National Fire Protection 1001 is ? 
A. Standard for firefighting professional qualifications 
B. Standard for Industrial Fire Brigades ...
Preview 4 out of 61 pages
Add to cartTCFP Prep 2022 Questions and Answers 
1. the NFPA requires that, at minimum ppe clothing should be cleaned every 
_______ months 
a. 12 
b. 6 
c. 9 
d. 14: b. 6 
2. National Fire Protection 1001 is ? 
A. Standard for firefighting professional qualifications 
B. Standard for Industrial Fire Brigades ...
NURS 620 Adult 1 Exam 2 Latest 2023 100% Verified -Maryville University 
1.	Which of the following is not a common cause of chronic renal failure? 
a.	Polycystic kidney disease 
b.	Type 1 diabetes 
c.	Hypothyroidism: Hypothyroidism 
2.	In clinical practice the NP notes an elevation in the creatinine...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cartNURS 620 Adult 1 Exam 2 Latest 2023 100% Verified -Maryville University 
1.	Which of the following is not a common cause of chronic renal failure? 
a.	Polycystic kidney disease 
b.	Type 1 diabetes 
c.	Hypothyroidism: Hypothyroidism 
2.	In clinical practice the NP notes an elevation in the creatinine...
Maryville NURS 620 Exam 3 with complete solution latest 2020/2021 A+ exam 
 
1.	Which of the following is not a common cause of chronic renal failure? 
a.	Polycystic kidney disease 
b.	Type 1 diabetes 
c.	Hypothyroidism: Hypothyroidism 
2.	In clinical practice the NP notes an elevation in the creat...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cartMaryville NURS 620 Exam 3 with complete solution latest 2020/2021 A+ exam 
 
1.	Which of the following is not a common cause of chronic renal failure? 
a.	Polycystic kidney disease 
b.	Type 1 diabetes 
c.	Hypothyroidism: Hypothyroidism 
2.	In clinical practice the NP notes an elevation in the creat...
Maryville NURS 620 Exam 4 Questions and answers latest update 
1.	23-year-old, sexually active female who presents for her first pap smear. Her history includes no pregnancies. Her first intercourse was at age 14 and has had at least 10 sexual partners if not 12 partners since. Which conditions do y...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartMaryville NURS 620 Exam 4 Questions and answers latest update 
1.	23-year-old, sexually active female who presents for her first pap smear. Her history includes no pregnancies. Her first intercourse was at age 14 and has had at least 10 sexual partners if not 12 partners since. Which conditions do y...
NSG 3100 Exam 4 with complete solutions(2022 Actual test) 
1.	When the client's serum sodium level is 120 mEq/L, the priority nursing assessment is to monitor the status of which body system?: Neurological 
2.	While assisting the client with meal selection, the nurse realizes that clients who pract...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartNSG 3100 Exam 4 with complete solutions(2022 Actual test) 
1.	When the client's serum sodium level is 120 mEq/L, the priority nursing assessment is to monitor the status of which body system?: Neurological 
2.	While assisting the client with meal selection, the nurse realizes that clients who pract...
NRNP 6560 Midterm Exam Latest 2022 Already graded A+ 
1.	Surgery risk classes: Class 1: benefits outweigh risk, should be done Class 2a: reasonable to perform 
Class 2b: should be considered Class 3: rarely appropriate 
2.	General rules for surgery: testing: ECG before surgery only if coronary dis- ...
Preview 4 out of 96 pages
Add to cartNRNP 6560 Midterm Exam Latest 2022 Already graded A+ 
1.	Surgery risk classes: Class 1: benefits outweigh risk, should be done Class 2a: reasonable to perform 
Class 2b: should be considered Class 3: rarely appropriate 
2.	General rules for surgery: testing: ECG before surgery only if coronary dis- ...
NR 503 Epidemiology MIDTERM AND FINAL EXAM 
1.	The population of a city on February 15, 2005, was 36,600. The city has a passive surveillance system that collects hospital and private physician reports of influenza cases every month. During the period between January 1 and April 1, 2005, 2,200 new c...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartNR 503 Epidemiology MIDTERM AND FINAL EXAM 
1.	The population of a city on February 15, 2005, was 36,600. The city has a passive surveillance system that collects hospital and private physician reports of influenza cases every month. During the period between January 1 and April 1, 2005, 2,200 new c...
1x sold
NR 503 Epidemiology Final Exam ( Version 1) / NR503 Final Exam 2023: Population Health, Epidemiology & Statistical Principles: Chamberlain College Of Nursing | 100 % VERIFIED ANSWERS, GRADE A 
 
Objectives: 
 
Week 1: 
 
•	Integrate key terms of epidemiology and population health to the Advanced...
Preview 4 out of 35 pages
Add to cartNR 503 Epidemiology Final Exam ( Version 1) / NR503 Final Exam 2023: Population Health, Epidemiology & Statistical Principles: Chamberlain College Of Nursing | 100 % VERIFIED ANSWERS, GRADE A 
 
Objectives: 
 
Week 1: 
 
•	Integrate key terms of epidemiology and population health to the Advanced...
NR 503 Epidemiology Final Exam ( Version 1) / NR503 Final Exam 2023 
1.	The population of a city on February 15, 2005, was 36,600. The city has a passive surveillance system that collects hospital and private physician reports of influenza cases every month. During the period between January 1 and A...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartNR 503 Epidemiology Final Exam ( Version 1) / NR503 Final Exam 2023 
1.	The population of a city on February 15, 2005, was 36,600. The city has a passive surveillance system that collects hospital and private physician reports of influenza cases every month. During the period between January 1 and A...
BKAT ICU Post Test 2023 with complete solution 
1.	Nitroprusside purpose: decreases preload and afterload by vasodilation (mainly afterload) 
2.	Dobutamine mechanism of action: contractility 
3.	Dopamine at a low-end dose "renal dose": 0.5-4mcg/kg/min increases renal and mesentric perfusion 
4.	Do...
Preview 3 out of 19 pages
Add to cartBKAT ICU Post Test 2023 with complete solution 
1.	Nitroprusside purpose: decreases preload and afterload by vasodilation (mainly afterload) 
2.	Dobutamine mechanism of action: contractility 
3.	Dopamine at a low-end dose "renal dose": 0.5-4mcg/kg/min increases renal and mesentric perfusion 
4.	Do...
FEMA IS-100.C: Introduction to the Incident Command Questions and Answers 
Which General Staff member prepares Incident Action Plans, manages information, and maintains situational awareness for the incident?: planning section cheif 
2.	If the Incident Commanderdesignates personnel to provide public...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartFEMA IS-100.C: Introduction to the Incident Command Questions and Answers 
Which General Staff member prepares Incident Action Plans, manages information, and maintains situational awareness for the incident?: planning section cheif 
2.	If the Incident Commanderdesignates personnel to provide public...
SFSU BIO 230 FINAL EXAM 2023 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION 
1.	Why is homeostasis important?: to maintain a relatively stable environment, within limits. 
2.	How does the body maintain homeostasis?: through cooperation of multiple organ systems, including the endocrine and nervous system 
3.	What is a home...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartSFSU BIO 230 FINAL EXAM 2023 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION 
1.	Why is homeostasis important?: to maintain a relatively stable environment, within limits. 
2.	How does the body maintain homeostasis?: through cooperation of multiple organ systems, including the endocrine and nervous system 
3.	What is a home...
1.	ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS pap result with high risk hpv 16 cotest in 26 year old no abnormal paps: colposcopy 
2.	What is included in the well women of an adolescent?: health history menses 
gynecologic and pregnancy issues psychosocial 
abuse drugs alcohol use physical exam scree...
Preview 4 out of 54 pages
Add to cart1.	ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS pap result with high risk hpv 16 cotest in 26 year old no abnormal paps: colposcopy 
2.	What is included in the well women of an adolescent?: health history menses 
gynecologic and pregnancy issues psychosocial 
abuse drugs alcohol use physical exam scree...
NSG 4060 Comprehensive ATI Practice B 
 
A nurse is assessing a client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 48 hrs ago. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the therapy has been effective? 
Hemoglobin 14.9 g/dL 
The nurse should identify that packed RBCs a re administered...
Preview 3 out of 26 pages
Add to cartNSG 4060 Comprehensive ATI Practice B 
 
A nurse is assessing a client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 48 hrs ago. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the therapy has been effective? 
Hemoglobin 14.9 g/dL 
The nurse should identify that packed RBCs a re administered...
Star Point 1: Discovery (Identify topic and practice issue) 
Identify the topic and the nursing practice issue related to this topic. (This MUST involve a nursing practice issue.) 
Hand hygiene protocol to address the clinical practice issue of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs). 
 
 
Briefly descr...
Preview 1 out of 1 pages
Add to cartStar Point 1: Discovery (Identify topic and practice issue) 
Identify the topic and the nursing practice issue related to this topic. (This MUST involve a nursing practice issue.) 
Hand hygiene protocol to address the clinical practice issue of hospital-acquired infections (HAIs). 
 
 
Briefly descr...
They are essential for our intellectual functioning (EX: prisoners in solitary confinement), personality development, and for life sustaining properties (EX: pain). 
How do we detect changes in the environment through our body? 
• Sensory Receptors- 1st line of reception. They are structures speci...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartThey are essential for our intellectual functioning (EX: prisoners in solitary confinement), personality development, and for life sustaining properties (EX: pain). 
How do we detect changes in the environment through our body? 
• Sensory Receptors- 1st line of reception. They are structures speci...
Week 2: 
Chapter 24: The Digestive System part two 
 
Basic GI Functions 
• Primary function: movement of nutrient molecules from the external environment to the internal environment. (Absorption of nutrients) 
Food->Digestion->motility and absorption 
 
Pancreas 
• Gland in the retroperit...
Preview 4 out of 35 pages
Add to cartWeek 2: 
Chapter 24: The Digestive System part two 
 
Basic GI Functions 
• Primary function: movement of nutrient molecules from the external environment to the internal environment. (Absorption of nutrients) 
Food->Digestion->motility and absorption 
 
Pancreas 
• Gland in the retroperit...
All multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 
 
1.	What is the study of the structure of the human body? 
 
A.	Anatomy 
B.	Physiology 
C.	Anabolism 
D.	Catabolism 
E.	Metabolism 
 
A.	Anatomy 
 
2. 
...
Preview 4 out of 70 pages
Add to cartAll multiple choice questions have one answer unless otherwise specified. Choose the best response to the question with the information provided. 
 
1.	What is the study of the structure of the human body? 
 
A.	Anatomy 
B.	Physiology 
C.	Anabolism 
D.	Catabolism 
E.	Metabolism 
 
A.	Anatomy 
 
2. 
...
25x sold
This encompasses the questions that are most frequently tested on the NR 509 exam. 
Well researched resources by our experts at smartprof
Preview 4 out of 80 pages
Add to cartThis encompasses the questions that are most frequently tested on the NR 509 exam. 
Well researched resources by our experts at smartprof
1.	Janet is a 30 year old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspician of cauda equna compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? 
 
a.	gastrocnemius weakness 
b.	red...
Preview 3 out of 26 pages
Add to cart1.	Janet is a 30 year old woman who has been recently diagnosed with a herniated disc at the level of L5-S1. She is currently in the emergency room with suspician of cauda equna compression. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of cauda equina compression? 
 
a.	gastrocnemius weakness 
b.	red...
1.	Which NIMS Management Characteristic may include gathering, analyzing, and assessing weather service data from technical specialists? 
A.	Incident Facilities and Locations 
B.	Management by Objectives 
C.	Information and Intelligence Management 
D.	Integrated Communications: C. Information and In...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cart1.	Which NIMS Management Characteristic may include gathering, analyzing, and assessing weather service data from technical specialists? 
A.	Incident Facilities and Locations 
B.	Management by Objectives 
C.	Information and Intelligence Management 
D.	Integrated Communications: C. Information and In...
1.	What document is referenced to when looking for potentialproblem areas identified by the government indicatingscrutiny of the services within the coming year?: 
A)	OIG Compliance Plan Guidance 
B)	OIG Security Summary 
C)	OIG Work Plan 
D)	OIG Investigation Plan: C (Rationale: Twice a year, the O...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cart1.	What document is referenced to when looking for potentialproblem areas identified by the government indicatingscrutiny of the services within the coming year?: 
A)	OIG Compliance Plan Guidance 
B)	OIG Security Summary 
C)	OIG Work Plan 
D)	OIG Investigation Plan: C (Rationale: Twice a year, the O...
1.	What type of provider goes through approximately 26 1/2 months of educa- tion and is licensed to practice medicine with the oversight of a physician?- 
: Physician Assistant (PA) 
2.	The	describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures, or technologies are considered medic...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cart1.	What type of provider goes through approximately 26 1/2 months of educa- tion and is licensed to practice medicine with the oversight of a physician?- 
: Physician Assistant (PA) 
2.	The	describes whether specific medical items, services, treatment procedures, or technologies are considered medic...
1.	"hold harmless clause": * found in some non-Medicare health plan contracts 
*	prohibits billing to patient for anything beyond deductibles and co-pays. 
2.	A compliance plan may offer several benefits, including:: * more accurate payment of claims 
*	fewer billing mistakes 
*	improved documenta...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cart1.	"hold harmless clause": * found in some non-Medicare health plan contracts 
*	prohibits billing to patient for anything beyond deductibles and co-pays. 
2.	A compliance plan may offer several benefits, including:: * more accurate payment of claims 
*	fewer billing mistakes 
*	improved documenta...
1.	Representations and Warranties: Representations are statements the appli- cant makes on an application that are deemed to be true to the applicant's best knowledge. Warranties are statements the insurer makes in the contract. 
2.	Underwriting vs. Actuarial Departments: Two related insurance comp...
Preview 4 out of 60 pages
Add to cart1.	Representations and Warranties: Representations are statements the appli- cant makes on an application that are deemed to be true to the applicant's best knowledge. Warranties are statements the insurer makes in the contract. 
2.	Underwriting vs. Actuarial Departments: Two related insurance comp...
1.	Your team has provided face-mask PPV with chest movement for 30 sec- onds. When is placement of an endotracheal tube strongly recommended?- 
: The baby's heart rate remains less than 100 bpm and is not increasing. 
2.	During a delivery, when and where should a person with intubation skills be av...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cart1.	Your team has provided face-mask PPV with chest movement for 30 sec- onds. When is placement of an endotracheal tube strongly recommended?- 
: The baby's heart rate remains less than 100 bpm and is not increasing. 
2.	During a delivery, when and where should a person with intubation skills be av...
1.	What is the single most important and effective step in neonatal resusci- tation?: Ventilation of the newborn's lungs 
2.	Abnormal Transition Findings: -Irregular Breathing, absent breathing, or rapid breathing 
-Slow or fast heart rate 
-Decreased Muscle Tone 
-Pale Skin or Blue Skin 
-Low oxyg...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cart1.	What is the single most important and effective step in neonatal resusci- tation?: Ventilation of the newborn's lungs 
2.	Abnormal Transition Findings: -Irregular Breathing, absent breathing, or rapid breathing 
-Slow or fast heart rate 
-Decreased Muscle Tone 
-Pale Skin or Blue Skin 
-Low oxyg...
1.	What is the single most important and effective step in neonatal resusci- tation?: Ventilation of the newborn's lungs 
2.	Abnormal Transition Findings: -Irregular Breathing, absent breathing, or rapid breathing 
-Slow or fast heart rate 
-Decreased Muscle Tone 
-Pale Skin or Blue Skin 
-Low oxyg...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cart1.	What is the single most important and effective step in neonatal resusci- tation?: Ventilation of the newborn's lungs 
2.	Abnormal Transition Findings: -Irregular Breathing, absent breathing, or rapid breathing 
-Slow or fast heart rate 
-Decreased Muscle Tone 
-Pale Skin or Blue Skin 
-Low oxyg...
1.	After the initial steps of newborn care, a baby is apneic. What is the most important and effective action to take in the resuscitation of this baby? Provide positive-pressure ventilation. 
Perform chest compressions. 
Provide additional vigorous stimulation 
Provide supplemental oxygen.: Provide...
Preview 2 out of 15 pages
Add to cart1.	After the initial steps of newborn care, a baby is apneic. What is the most important and effective action to take in the resuscitation of this baby? Provide positive-pressure ventilation. 
Perform chest compressions. 
Provide additional vigorous stimulation 
Provide supplemental oxygen.: Provide...
1.	When is the placement of endotracheal tube recommended?: A- HR<100 
2.	Intubation skills be available?: A- In hospital and immediately available 
3.	Confirming endotracheal tube: C- exhaled Co2 and inc HR 
4.	Co2 detector not yellow: D- Low cardiac output 
5.	8th edition cardiac monitor recomm...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cart1.	When is the placement of endotracheal tube recommended?: A- HR<100 
2.	Intubation skills be available?: A- In hospital and immediately available 
3.	Confirming endotracheal tube: C- exhaled Co2 and inc HR 
4.	Co2 detector not yellow: D- Low cardiac output 
5.	8th edition cardiac monitor recomm...
1.	A resident often carries a doll with her, treating it like her baby. One day she is wandering around crying that she can't find her baby. The nurse aide should: offer comfort to the resident and help her look for her baby. 
2.	A nurse aid is asked to change a urinary drainage bag attached to an ...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cart1.	A resident often carries a doll with her, treating it like her baby. One day she is wandering around crying that she can't find her baby. The nurse aide should: offer comfort to the resident and help her look for her baby. 
2.	A nurse aid is asked to change a urinary drainage bag attached to an ...
1.	Group Therapy primary purpose: The primary purpose of group therapy is to facilitate changes by the patient to address identified problems. 
2.	A technique for dealing with an over talkative client and silence from other participants in a group during therapy: make an observation about the group...
Preview 4 out of 31 pages
Add to cart1.	Group Therapy primary purpose: The primary purpose of group therapy is to facilitate changes by the patient to address identified problems. 
2.	A technique for dealing with an over talkative client and silence from other participants in a group during therapy: make an observation about the group...
MARYVILLE NURS 623 EXAM 2 2023 (Graded A+) With complete Solution
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartMARYVILLE NURS 623 EXAM 2 2023 (Graded A+) With complete Solution
NURS 629 MVU exam 1 2023 Questions and Answers latest update with complete solution
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartNURS 629 MVU exam 1 2023 Questions and Answers latest update with complete solution
1.	The Tanner scale (5 stages) of sexual maturity rating allows for accurate classification of physical pubertal maturation. During the examination of your patient, you notice that the pubic hair is increased in quantity, is darker, and is present in the typical female triangle but in a smaller quan...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cart1.	The Tanner scale (5 stages) of sexual maturity rating allows for accurate classification of physical pubertal maturation. During the examination of your patient, you notice that the pubic hair is increased in quantity, is darker, and is present in the typical female triangle but in a smaller quan...
1.	Which drug class is most effective in treating erosive lesions:?: PPIs 
2.	Name 4 H2RAs:: Cimetidine (Tagamet) Famotidine (Pepcid) 
Ranitidine (Zantac) Nizatidine (Axid) 
3.	What is the action of H2RAs?: Decrease acid secretion by blocking histamine 2-receptors in gastric parietal cells 
4.	Name ...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cart1.	Which drug class is most effective in treating erosive lesions:?: PPIs 
2.	Name 4 H2RAs:: Cimetidine (Tagamet) Famotidine (Pepcid) 
Ranitidine (Zantac) Nizatidine (Axid) 
3.	What is the action of H2RAs?: Decrease acid secretion by blocking histamine 2-receptors in gastric parietal cells 
4.	Name ...
1.	How do antigout medications work?: by inhibiting the infiltration and phago- cytosis of leukocytes, thus decreasing the breakdown of uric acid to urate crystals. 
2.	Deposition of urate crystals causes: pain and inflammation 
3.	What is Colchicine: anti-gout medication 
4.	how does Colchicine wor...
Preview 3 out of 19 pages
Add to cart1.	How do antigout medications work?: by inhibiting the infiltration and phago- cytosis of leukocytes, thus decreasing the breakdown of uric acid to urate crystals. 
2.	Deposition of urate crystals causes: pain and inflammation 
3.	What is Colchicine: anti-gout medication 
4.	how does Colchicine wor...
1.	What is the best description of pharmacokinetics?: The study of how med- ications enter the body, reach their site of action, metabolize, and excretion 
2.	Which order is written correctly? 
 
A)	Aspirin 2 tablets prn 
B)	Haloperidol (Haldol) ½ tablet at bedtime 
C)	Zolpidem (Ambien) 5 mg PO at ...
Preview 4 out of 34 pages
Add to cart1.	What is the best description of pharmacokinetics?: The study of how med- ications enter the body, reach their site of action, metabolize, and excretion 
2.	Which order is written correctly? 
 
A)	Aspirin 2 tablets prn 
B)	Haloperidol (Haldol) ½ tablet at bedtime 
C)	Zolpidem (Ambien) 5 mg PO at ...
1.	What is the medication that is the antidote for alprazolam?: flumazenil 
2.	What is the MOA of pregabalin that makes it alleviate pain for people with fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue?: binds to the alpha 2 delta sub-units of voltage sensitive calcium channels 
3.	What is an antagonist of caffeine...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cart1.	What is the medication that is the antidote for alprazolam?: flumazenil 
2.	What is the MOA of pregabalin that makes it alleviate pain for people with fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue?: binds to the alpha 2 delta sub-units of voltage sensitive calcium channels 
3.	What is an antagonist of caffeine...
1.	Which of the following SSRIs requires up to a 5-week washout period because of the 
long half-life of its potent active metabolite? 
A.	Escitalopram 
B.	Fluvoxamine 
C.	Fluoxetine 
D.	Sertraline: C 
2.	Which of the following symptoms is most likely to improve within approx- imately 1 week 
of sta...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cart1.	Which of the following SSRIs requires up to a 5-week washout period because of the 
long half-life of its potent active metabolite? 
A.	Escitalopram 
B.	Fluvoxamine 
C.	Fluoxetine 
D.	Sertraline: C 
2.	Which of the following symptoms is most likely to improve within approx- imately 1 week 
of sta...
1.	How does reviewing the genetic makeup of a client help guide the PMHNP in selecting medication for clients?: Genetic testing can assist by providing more information on how clients may respond to certain psychotropic medications, as well as providing information on how a client may break down and...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cart1.	How does reviewing the genetic makeup of a client help guide the PMHNP in selecting medication for clients?: Genetic testing can assist by providing more information on how clients may respond to certain psychotropic medications, as well as providing information on how a client may break down and...
2x sold
1.	How does the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC) affect the amygdala?: inhibits and activates the amygdala 
2.	Wernicke's area is associated with which of the following?: speech com- prehension 
3.	The limbic system is associated with which of the following: emotion and learning 
4.	Which brain structure...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cart1.	How does the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC) affect the amygdala?: inhibits and activates the amygdala 
2.	Wernicke's area is associated with which of the following?: speech com- prehension 
3.	The limbic system is associated with which of the following: emotion and learning 
4.	Which brain structure...
1.	How do neurotransmitters work?: Once it crosses the gap, it is taken up by the post-synaptic receptor, i.e. the dendrite of the next neuron. 
The chemical message is converted back into an electrical impulse and the process of transmission begins again. 
Each one has its own specific molecular st...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cart1.	How do neurotransmitters work?: Once it crosses the gap, it is taken up by the post-synaptic receptor, i.e. the dendrite of the next neuron. 
The chemical message is converted back into an electrical impulse and the process of transmission begins again. 
Each one has its own specific molecular st...
1.	Kleinman explanatory Model: Eliciting the patient's (explanatory) model gives the physician knowledge of the beliefs the patient holds about his illness, the personal and social meaning he attaches to his disorder, his expectations about what will happen to him and what the doctor will do, and h...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cart1.	Kleinman explanatory Model: Eliciting the patient's (explanatory) model gives the physician knowledge of the beliefs the patient holds about his illness, the personal and social meaning he attaches to his disorder, his expectations about what will happen to him and what the doctor will do, and h...
1.	Your team has provided face-mask PPV with chest movement for 30 sec- onds. When is placement of an endotracheal tube strongly recommended?- 
: The baby's heart rate remains less than 100 bpm and is not increasing. 
2.	During a delivery, when and where should a person with intubation skills be av...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cart1.	Your team has provided face-mask PPV with chest movement for 30 sec- onds. When is placement of an endotracheal tube strongly recommended?- 
: The baby's heart rate remains less than 100 bpm and is not increasing. 
2.	During a delivery, when and where should a person with intubation skills be av...
1.	Clinical manifestation of physiological jaundice: *Usually within first 2-4 days of life 
*Not lasting longer than first 2 weeks of onset 
*Due to fast breakdown of RSCs 
*Liver immature and poor dietary intake. 
2.	Clinical manifestation of breast fed jaundice: *Usually within first few weeks to...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cart1.	Clinical manifestation of physiological jaundice: *Usually within first 2-4 days of life 
*Not lasting longer than first 2 weeks of onset 
*Due to fast breakdown of RSCs 
*Liver immature and poor dietary intake. 
2.	Clinical manifestation of breast fed jaundice: *Usually within first few weeks to...
1.	How do you measure fundal height: symphysis pubis to top of uterus 
2.	When can you start to hear fetal heart tones?: around 12 wks 
3.	What is quickening?: fetal movements felt by the mother 
4.	When is quickening felt: between 16-20 weeks 
5.	Abnormal Complaints in first trimester: 1st trimeste...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cart1.	How do you measure fundal height: symphysis pubis to top of uterus 
2.	When can you start to hear fetal heart tones?: around 12 wks 
3.	What is quickening?: fetal movements felt by the mother 
4.	When is quickening felt: between 16-20 weeks 
5.	Abnormal Complaints in first trimester: 1st trimeste...
A. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial she felt she received justice 
B. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial. She felt she received justice. 
CORRECT ANS B. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial. She felt 
she received justice.(answer a is ...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartA. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial she felt she received justice 
B. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial. She felt she received justice. 
CORRECT ANS B. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial. She felt 
she received justice.(answer a is ...
What is the age requirement for safety belts? - CORRECT ANS Under 16, must 
be restrained 
Which title of the CRS covers traffic? - CORRECT ANS Title 42 
Title 42 includes - CORRECT ANS Title, Article, Part, Common Code, Points, 
Fine 
Are traffic infractions arrestable offenses? - CORRECT ANS No ...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartWhat is the age requirement for safety belts? - CORRECT ANS Under 16, must 
be restrained 
Which title of the CRS covers traffic? - CORRECT ANS Title 42 
Title 42 includes - CORRECT ANS Title, Article, Part, Common Code, Points, 
Fine 
Are traffic infractions arrestable offenses? - CORRECT ANS No ...
1x sold
What is Sensory Distortion? - CORRECT ANS An Officer may hallucinate that an 
Offender has already shot him 
How Does an Officer React to a Threat to Another Person? - CORRECT ANS 
Locate, React, Control and Identify 
The Simplest Way for an Officer to Relieve Stress? - CORRECT ANS Deep Belly 
Br...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartWhat is Sensory Distortion? - CORRECT ANS An Officer may hallucinate that an 
Offender has already shot him 
How Does an Officer React to a Threat to Another Person? - CORRECT ANS 
Locate, React, Control and Identify 
The Simplest Way for an Officer to Relieve Stress? - CORRECT ANS Deep Belly 
Br...
An AED indicates that "no shock is advised." Which of the following is most 
appropriate to do next? - CORRECT ANSWER Perform CPR for about 2 minutes 
Based on which of the following signs and symptoms would you determine that a 
victim is experiencing respiratory distress? - CORRECT ANSWER Gasp...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartAn AED indicates that "no shock is advised." Which of the following is most 
appropriate to do next? - CORRECT ANSWER Perform CPR for about 2 minutes 
Based on which of the following signs and symptoms would you determine that a 
victim is experiencing respiratory distress? - CORRECT ANSWER Gasp...
An AED indicates that "no shock is advised." Which of the following is most 
appropriate to do next? - CORRECT ANSWER Perform CPR for about 2 minutes 
Based on which of the following signs and symptoms would you determine that a 
victim is experiencing respiratory distress? - CORRECT ANSWER Gasp...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartAn AED indicates that "no shock is advised." Which of the following is most 
appropriate to do next? - CORRECT ANSWER Perform CPR for about 2 minutes 
Based on which of the following signs and symptoms would you determine that a 
victim is experiencing respiratory distress? - CORRECT ANSWER Gasp...
Documentation (content) - CORRECT ANSWER Proper code assignment is 
determined both by _____________ in the medical record and by the unique rules 
that govern each code set in that instance 
An auditor - CORRECT ANSWER The role a coder may take on to verify that the 
documentation supports the c...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartDocumentation (content) - CORRECT ANSWER Proper code assignment is 
determined both by _____________ in the medical record and by the unique rules 
that govern each code set in that instance 
An auditor - CORRECT ANSWER The role a coder may take on to verify that the 
documentation supports the c...
When coding in operative report what action would NOT be recommended? - 
CORRECT ANSWER Coding from the header with out reading the body of the 
report 
If an NCD doesn't exist for a particular service/procedure performed on a Medicare 
patient who determines coverage? - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare ...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartWhen coding in operative report what action would NOT be recommended? - 
CORRECT ANSWER Coding from the header with out reading the body of the 
report 
If an NCD doesn't exist for a particular service/procedure performed on a Medicare 
patient who determines coverage? - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare ...
Many coding professionals go on to find work as: - CORRECT ANSWER 
Consultant 
A medical record contains information on all but what areas? - CORRECT 
ANSWER Financial records 
Technicians who specialize in coding are called: - CORRECT ANSWER Coding 
specialists 
EHR stands for: - CORRECT ANSWER ...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartMany coding professionals go on to find work as: - CORRECT ANSWER 
Consultant 
A medical record contains information on all but what areas? - CORRECT 
ANSWER Financial records 
Technicians who specialize in coding are called: - CORRECT ANSWER Coding 
specialists 
EHR stands for: - CORRECT ANSWER ...
When coding in operative report what action would NOT be recommended? - 
CORRECT ANSWER Coding from the header with out reading the body of the 
report 
If an NCD doesn't exist for a particular service/procedure performed on a Medicare 
patient who determines coverage? - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare ...
Preview 2 out of 11 pages
Add to cartWhen coding in operative report what action would NOT be recommended? - 
CORRECT ANSWER Coding from the header with out reading the body of the 
report 
If an NCD doesn't exist for a particular service/procedure performed on a Medicare 
patient who determines coverage? - CORRECT ANSWER Medicare ...
What is the single most important and effective step in neonatal resuscitation? - 
CORRECT ANSWER Ventilation of the newborn's lungs 
Abnormal Transition Findings - CORRECT ANSWER -Irregular Breathing, 
absent breathing, or rapid breathing 
-Slow or fast heart rate 
-Decreased Muscle Tone 
-Pale ...
Preview 2 out of 15 pages
Add to cartWhat is the single most important and effective step in neonatal resuscitation? - 
CORRECT ANSWER Ventilation of the newborn's lungs 
Abnormal Transition Findings - CORRECT ANSWER -Irregular Breathing, 
absent breathing, or rapid breathing 
-Slow or fast heart rate 
-Decreased Muscle Tone 
-Pale ...
What is important to note when a patient has traumatic injury - CORRECT ANSWER If taking Blood Thinners 
Define delirium - CORRECT ANSWER Underlying acute cause, abrupt onset, hours to days, reversible, hallucinations, incoherent speech, confusion 
Define Dementia - CORRECT ANSWER Var...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartWhat is important to note when a patient has traumatic injury - CORRECT ANSWER If taking Blood Thinners 
Define delirium - CORRECT ANSWER Underlying acute cause, abrupt onset, hours to days, reversible, hallucinations, incoherent speech, confusion 
Define Dementia - CORRECT ANSWER Var...
When is termination in CBT - CORRECT ANSWER Initial phase/1st session 
When is Termination in IPT - CORRECT ANSWER Middle phase. 
What patient type is IPT for? - CORRECT ANSWER Depression, anxiety, role transition, IP problems 
What phase is termination for EMDR - CORRECT ANSWER ...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartWhen is termination in CBT - CORRECT ANSWER Initial phase/1st session 
When is Termination in IPT - CORRECT ANSWER Middle phase. 
What patient type is IPT for? - CORRECT ANSWER Depression, anxiety, role transition, IP problems 
What phase is termination for EMDR - CORRECT ANSWER ...
1x sold
Stab Braking: - CORRECT ANSWER Involves applying the brakes and then releasing them after the wheels lock up. 
Placards must be: - CORRECT ANSWER Placed on all four sides of a vehicle 
Which figure shows the correct way to turn? - CORRECT ANSWER Figure B: slightly opposing traffic 
Yo...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartStab Braking: - CORRECT ANSWER Involves applying the brakes and then releasing them after the wheels lock up. 
Placards must be: - CORRECT ANSWER Placed on all four sides of a vehicle 
Which figure shows the correct way to turn? - CORRECT ANSWER Figure B: slightly opposing traffic 
Yo...
1x sold
Describe cytochrome p450 system - CORRECT ANSWER Cytochrome p450 system is a series of enzymes used to metabolize medications 
Inhibitors - CORRECT ANSWER block metabolic activity from one or more CYP450 enzymes 
Inducers - CORRECT ANSWER increase CYP450 enzyme activity by increasing ...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartDescribe cytochrome p450 system - CORRECT ANSWER Cytochrome p450 system is a series of enzymes used to metabolize medications 
Inhibitors - CORRECT ANSWER block metabolic activity from one or more CYP450 enzymes 
Inducers - CORRECT ANSWER increase CYP450 enzyme activity by increasing ...
What is important to note when a patient has traumatic injury - CORRECT ANSWER If 
taking Blood Thinners 
Define delirium - CORRECT ANSWER Underlying acute cause, abrupt onset, hours to days, 
reversible, hallucinations, incoherent speech, confusion 
Define Dementia - CORRECT ANSWER Various causes, ...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartWhat is important to note when a patient has traumatic injury - CORRECT ANSWER If 
taking Blood Thinners 
Define delirium - CORRECT ANSWER Underlying acute cause, abrupt onset, hours to days, 
reversible, hallucinations, incoherent speech, confusion 
Define Dementia - CORRECT ANSWER Various causes, ...
1x sold
When is termination in CBT - CORRECT ANSWER Initial phase/1st session 
When is Termination in IPT - CORRECT ANSWER Middle phase. 
What patient type is IPT for? - CORRECT ANSWER Depression, anxiety, role transition, IP 
problems 
What phase is termination for EMDR - CORRECT ANSWER Final stage/8th sta...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartWhen is termination in CBT - CORRECT ANSWER Initial phase/1st session 
When is Termination in IPT - CORRECT ANSWER Middle phase. 
What patient type is IPT for? - CORRECT ANSWER Depression, anxiety, role transition, IP 
problems 
What phase is termination for EMDR - CORRECT ANSWER Final stage/8th sta...
Stab Braking: - CORRECT ANSWER Involves applying the brakes and then releasing them 
after the wheels lock up. 
Placards must be: - CORRECT ANSWER Placed on all four sides of a vehicle 
Which figure shows the correct way to turn? - CORRECT ANSWER Figure B: slightly 
opposing traffic 
You should sign...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartStab Braking: - CORRECT ANSWER Involves applying the brakes and then releasing them 
after the wheels lock up. 
Placards must be: - CORRECT ANSWER Placed on all four sides of a vehicle 
Which figure shows the correct way to turn? - CORRECT ANSWER Figure B: slightly 
opposing traffic 
You should sign...
Describe cytochrome p450 system - CORRECT ANSWER Cytochrome p450 system is a 
series of enzymes used to metabolize medications 
Inhibitors - CORRECT ANSWER block metabolic activity from one or more CYP450 
enzymes 
Inducers - CORRECT ANSWER increase CYP450 enzyme activity by increasing enzyme 
synth...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartDescribe cytochrome p450 system - CORRECT ANSWER Cytochrome p450 system is a 
series of enzymes used to metabolize medications 
Inhibitors - CORRECT ANSWER block metabolic activity from one or more CYP450 
enzymes 
Inducers - CORRECT ANSWER increase CYP450 enzyme activity by increasing enzyme 
synth...
Norms - CORRECT ANSWER are considered the "right" patterns of behavior for a society 
Event interpretation - CORRECT ANSWER should be included for problem-solving therapy for a child with conduct disorder. 
Family therapy - CORRECT ANSWER can promote the greatest change in an adoles...
Preview 4 out of 33 pages
Add to cartNorms - CORRECT ANSWER are considered the "right" patterns of behavior for a society 
Event interpretation - CORRECT ANSWER should be included for problem-solving therapy for a child with conduct disorder. 
Family therapy - CORRECT ANSWER can promote the greatest change in an adoles...
A. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial she felt she received justice 
B. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial. She felt she received justice. 
CORRECT ANS B. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial. She felt 
she received justice.(answer a is a ...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartA. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial she felt she received justice 
B. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial. She felt she received justice. 
CORRECT ANS B. Julie was happy to get back to her life after the trial. She felt 
she received justice.(answer a is a ...
Stages of Learning in Benner's Model - CORRECT ANWSER Unconscious Incompetence 
Conscious Incompetence 
Conscious Competence 
Unconscious competence 
Explain Unconscious Incompetence - CORRECT ANWSER Novice, we don't know what we don't know 
Explain Conscious Incompetence - C...
Preview 2 out of 14 pages
Add to cartStages of Learning in Benner's Model - CORRECT ANWSER Unconscious Incompetence 
Conscious Incompetence 
Conscious Competence 
Unconscious competence 
Explain Unconscious Incompetence - CORRECT ANWSER Novice, we don't know what we don't know 
Explain Conscious Incompetence - C...
How does termination happen in CBT - CORRECT ANSWER Be-gins in first session 
How does termination happen in Interpersonal Therapy - CORRECT ANSWER Begins as early as the middle phase of therapy 
When does termination happen in EMDR - CORRECT ANSWER When the trauma/target is reprocess...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartHow does termination happen in CBT - CORRECT ANSWER Be-gins in first session 
How does termination happen in Interpersonal Therapy - CORRECT ANSWER Begins as early as the middle phase of therapy 
When does termination happen in EMDR - CORRECT ANSWER When the trauma/target is reprocess...
What area of the brain is most often linked to violence among patients? - CORRECT ANSWER Prefrontal- cortex 
Which personality disorder is often associated with self-harming be-havior? - CORRECT ANSWER BPD 
Know the risk factors associated with suicide among patients - CORRECT ANSWER ...
Preview 3 out of 18 pages
Add to cartWhat area of the brain is most often linked to violence among patients? - CORRECT ANSWER Prefrontal- cortex 
Which personality disorder is often associated with self-harming be-havior? - CORRECT ANSWER BPD 
Know the risk factors associated with suicide among patients - CORRECT ANSWER ...
1x sold
Who is at highest risk of suicide? - CORRECT ANSWER White, elderly men 
Schizophrenia 
Single, never married, divorced, recently widowed 
Previous attempts 
Adolescents with depression, bullied, or family hx of suicide 
Who is most likely to succeed at committing suicide? - CORRECT ANSWER ...
Preview 3 out of 25 pages
Add to cartWho is at highest risk of suicide? - CORRECT ANSWER White, elderly men 
Schizophrenia 
Single, never married, divorced, recently widowed 
Previous attempts 
Adolescents with depression, bullied, or family hx of suicide 
Who is most likely to succeed at committing suicide? - CORRECT ANSWER ...
Neurogenic Diabetes Insipidus - CORRECT ANSWER Swelling commonly seen after traumatic brain injury (TBI) can lead to danger-ous increases in intracranial pressure. This increase can push on the pi-tuitary leading to decreased ADH secretion = polyuria. 
Parasympathetic Nervous System - CORREC...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartNeurogenic Diabetes Insipidus - CORRECT ANSWER Swelling commonly seen after traumatic brain injury (TBI) can lead to danger-ous increases in intracranial pressure. This increase can push on the pi-tuitary leading to decreased ADH secretion = polyuria. 
Parasympathetic Nervous System - CORREC...
What is Apoptosis? - CORRECT ANSWER A programmed cell death 
What is necrosis? - CORRECT ANSWER Death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the blood supply. 
Characteristics of tissue necrosis - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Rapid loss of of t...
Preview 3 out of 26 pages
Add to cartWhat is Apoptosis? - CORRECT ANSWER A programmed cell death 
What is necrosis? - CORRECT ANSWER Death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the blood supply. 
Characteristics of tissue necrosis - CORRECT ANSWER 1) Rapid loss of of t...
DBT (dialectical behavior therapy) - CORRECT ANSWER Uses mindfulness to help regulate emotions and behavior associated with depression. Best used with borderlines 
mindfulness-based cognitive therapy - CORRECT ANSWER Teaching patients to integrate mindfulness with cognitive concepts to reg...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartDBT (dialectical behavior therapy) - CORRECT ANSWER Uses mindfulness to help regulate emotions and behavior associated with depression. Best used with borderlines 
mindfulness-based cognitive therapy - CORRECT ANSWER Teaching patients to integrate mindfulness with cognitive concepts to reg...
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a Chinese client regarding prescribed dietary modifications. During the teaching session the client con-tinually turns away from the nurse. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate? 
1. 
Continue with the instructions, verifying client...
Preview 4 out of 307 pages
Add to cartA nurse is providing discharge instructions to a Chinese client regarding prescribed dietary modifications. During the teaching session the client con-tinually turns away from the nurse. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate? 
1. 
Continue with the instructions, verifying client...
Examination Findings of a child with Kawasaki disease - CORRECT ANSWER Fever, Conjunctival Injection, Strawberry Tongue, and Edema of the Hands and Feet. 
 
Lymphadenopathy and Polymorphous Nonvesicular Rashes. 
Peripheral Edema - CORRECT ANSWER Grading: 
1+ Slight Pitting, no visible di...
Preview 3 out of 20 pages
Add to cartExamination Findings of a child with Kawasaki disease - CORRECT ANSWER Fever, Conjunctival Injection, Strawberry Tongue, and Edema of the Hands and Feet. 
 
Lymphadenopathy and Polymorphous Nonvesicular Rashes. 
Peripheral Edema - CORRECT ANSWER Grading: 
1+ Slight Pitting, no visible di...
1x sold
Potassium - CORRECT ANSWER Select the serum assessment that is used when prescribing drugs to treat psychiatric disorders in psycho-somatic patients 
Erickson - CORRECT ANSWER Select the theorist who developed the eight stages of the psychosocial life cycle 
Sexual abuse and Partner Betray...
Preview 3 out of 16 pages
Add to cartPotassium - CORRECT ANSWER Select the serum assessment that is used when prescribing drugs to treat psychiatric disorders in psycho-somatic patients 
Erickson - CORRECT ANSWER Select the theorist who developed the eight stages of the psychosocial life cycle 
Sexual abuse and Partner Betray...
Representations and Warranties - CORRECT ANSWER Representations are 
statements the applicant makes on an application that are deemed to be true to the 
applicant's best knowledge. Warranties are statements the insurer makes in the 
contract. 
Underwriting vs. Actuarial Departments - CORRECT ANSWER...
Preview 4 out of 72 pages
Add to cartRepresentations and Warranties - CORRECT ANSWER Representations are 
statements the applicant makes on an application that are deemed to be true to the 
applicant's best knowledge. Warranties are statements the insurer makes in the 
contract. 
Underwriting vs. Actuarial Departments - CORRECT ANSWER...
1. Review: the parasympathetic system is all about what? 
Conserving energy, digesting, metabolism, and rest 
2. The sympathetic nervoussystem primarily servesto protect an individual by doing 
whichof the following? (select all that apply) 
A. Decreasing mucous production 
B. Increasing blood sugar...
Preview 3 out of 28 pages
Add to cart1. Review: the parasympathetic system is all about what? 
Conserving energy, digesting, metabolism, and rest 
2. The sympathetic nervoussystem primarily servesto protect an individual by doing 
whichof the following? (select all that apply) 
A. Decreasing mucous production 
B. Increasing blood sugar...
Human cell can be categorized into gametes (Sperm & egg cells) and somatic cells, which include 
all cells other than gametes. Each somatic cell nucleus has 46 chromosomes in 23 pairs. These are 
diploid cells, and the individual’s fatherand mother each donate on chromosome per pair. New 
somatic...
Preview 3 out of 17 pages
Add to cartHuman cell can be categorized into gametes (Sperm & egg cells) and somatic cells, which include 
all cells other than gametes. Each somatic cell nucleus has 46 chromosomes in 23 pairs. These are 
diploid cells, and the individual’s fatherand mother each donate on chromosome per pair. New 
somatic...
A unique characteristic of Christianity in comparison with other religions is which of the 
following - ANSWER christianity offers good news of what God has done for us in 
giving his son to die for our sins and the gift of salvation 
God mission flows out of his character - ANSWER true 
Jesus sai...
Preview 1 out of 3 pages
Add to cartA unique characteristic of Christianity in comparison with other religions is which of the 
following - ANSWER christianity offers good news of what God has done for us in 
giving his son to die for our sins and the gift of salvation 
God mission flows out of his character - ANSWER true 
Jesus sai...
The kingdom of God - ANSWER -Is central to Jesus' message of hope, wholeness, 
and wisdom. 
-Is ruled by Jesus the king. 
-Has often been misunderstood. 
-Is an upside-down kingdom. 
-Is in effect now, but not yet fully realized. 
God's mission flows out of His character. - ANSWER True 
God's mi...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartThe kingdom of God - ANSWER -Is central to Jesus' message of hope, wholeness, 
and wisdom. 
-Is ruled by Jesus the king. 
-Has often been misunderstood. 
-Is an upside-down kingdom. 
-Is in effect now, but not yet fully realized. 
God's mission flows out of His character. - ANSWER True 
God's mi...
1. Why should an elevated PT/aPTT be reported to a physician prior to an invasive procedure? 
a. All abnormal lab results should be reported to the 
physician. 
b. The procedure will be cancelled. 
c. The risk for post-procedure thrombus will increase. 
d. There is increased risk for bleeding during...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cart1. Why should an elevated PT/aPTT be reported to a physician prior to an invasive procedure? 
a. All abnormal lab results should be reported to the 
physician. 
b. The procedure will be cancelled. 
c. The risk for post-procedure thrombus will increase. 
d. There is increased risk for bleeding during...
1. Why should an elevated PT/aPTT be reported to a physician prior to an invasive procedure? 
a. All abnormal lab results should be reported to the 
physician. 
b. The procedure will be cancelled. 
c. The risk for post-procedure thrombus will increase. 
d. There is increased risk for bleeding during...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cart1. Why should an elevated PT/aPTT be reported to a physician prior to an invasive procedure? 
a. All abnormal lab results should be reported to the 
physician. 
b. The procedure will be cancelled. 
c. The risk for post-procedure thrombus will increase. 
d. There is increased risk for bleeding during...
What type of reinsurance contract involves two companies automatically sharing 
their risk exposure? - ANS Treaty 
The stated amount or percent of liquid assets that an insurer must have on hand 
that will satisfy future obligations to its policyholders is called - ANS reserves 
When third-party o...
Preview 2 out of 15 pages
Add to cartWhat type of reinsurance contract involves two companies automatically sharing 
their risk exposure? - ANS Treaty 
The stated amount or percent of liquid assets that an insurer must have on hand 
that will satisfy future obligations to its policyholders is called - ANS reserves 
When third-party o...
NSG 3039 Hamric and Hanson's Advanced Practice Nursing 6th Edition New Update 2023.
Preview 4 out of 173 pages
Add to cartNSG 3039 Hamric and Hanson's Advanced Practice Nursing 6th Edition New Update 2023.
Quiz 1 
The action of platelet-derived growth factor is to stimulate the production of which cells? 
Correct 
answer: 
• Quiz 2 
Platele 
ts 
1 out of 1 points 
A healthcare professional is educating a patient about asthma. The professional states 
that good control is necessary due to which patho...
Preview 3 out of 19 pages
Add to cartQuiz 1 
The action of platelet-derived growth factor is to stimulate the production of which cells? 
Correct 
answer: 
• Quiz 2 
Platele 
ts 
1 out of 1 points 
A healthcare professional is educating a patient about asthma. The professional states 
that good control is necessary due to which patho...
10x sold
This encompasses the questions that are most frequently tested on the BIOS 255 EXAM 
Ace your exam with this well researched paper.
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartThis encompasses the questions that are most frequently tested on the BIOS 255 EXAM 
Ace your exam with this well researched paper.
To assess whether there is any improvement in a patient's dysuria, which question 
will the nurse ask? 
a."Do you have to urinate at night?" 
b."Do you have blood in your urine?" 
c."Do you have to urinate frequently?" 
d."Do you have pain when you urinate?" - ANS D. Dysuria is painful uri...
Preview 4 out of 49 pages
Add to cartTo assess whether there is any improvement in a patient's dysuria, which question 
will the nurse ask? 
a."Do you have to urinate at night?" 
b."Do you have blood in your urine?" 
c."Do you have to urinate frequently?" 
d."Do you have pain when you urinate?" - ANS D. Dysuria is painful uri...
1. The nurse is preparing the discontinue long term TPN therapy for a client. The nurse should plan to 
discontinue the TPN gradually to reduce the risk of which of the following adverse effects? 
a. Hyperglycemia 
b. Diarrhea 
c. Constipation 
d. Hypoglycemia- You taper it off to avoid this!!! 
Rat...
Preview 2 out of 15 pages
Add to cart1. The nurse is preparing the discontinue long term TPN therapy for a client. The nurse should plan to 
discontinue the TPN gradually to reduce the risk of which of the following adverse effects? 
a. Hyperglycemia 
b. Diarrhea 
c. Constipation 
d. Hypoglycemia- You taper it off to avoid this!!! 
Rat...
1. Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?: B) Gender 
Discordance 
2. Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? 
Select all that apply: Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher 
potency typical antipsychotics 
3. Antipsycho...
Preview 4 out of 41 pages
Add to cart1. Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?: B) Gender 
Discordance 
2. Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? 
Select all that apply: Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher 
potency typical antipsychotics 
3. Antipsycho...
1. Which of the following are risk factorsfor neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Select all that apply 
Age 
Rapid dose escalation 
Parentalroute of administration 
Higher potency typical antipsychotics 
2. Antipsychotic medications provide D2 blockade in the mesocortical pathway causing which of the 
...
Preview 3 out of 30 pages
Add to cart1. Which of the following are risk factorsfor neuroleptic malignant syndrome? Select all that apply 
Age 
Rapid dose escalation 
Parentalroute of administration 
Higher potency typical antipsychotics 
2. Antipsychotic medications provide D2 blockade in the mesocortical pathway causing which of the 
...
1. The 1/2 life of lithium is about? 24 hours 
2. Fluoxetine is the SSRI with the WD risk? lowest due 
to long half life 
3. What antipsychotics are good for pts who miss doses of 
their meds? An-tipsychotics with long half-lives: 
1. Cariprazine(Vrylar): (2-4 days-active metabolites up to 3 
weeks)...
Preview 4 out of 38 pages
Add to cart1. The 1/2 life of lithium is about? 24 hours 
2. Fluoxetine is the SSRI with the WD risk? lowest due 
to long half life 
3. What antipsychotics are good for pts who miss doses of 
their meds? An-tipsychotics with long half-lives: 
1. Cariprazine(Vrylar): (2-4 days-active metabolites up to 3 
weeks)...
How can you best protect yourself from possible bloodborne pathogen transmission 
when providing care? 
a. Ask the victim first if they have any communicable diseases. 
b. Thoroughly wash your hands before providing care. 
c. Use first aid supplies, such as dressings and bandages, as a barrier wh...
Preview 3 out of 23 pages
Add to cartHow can you best protect yourself from possible bloodborne pathogen transmission 
when providing care? 
a. Ask the victim first if they have any communicable diseases. 
b. Thoroughly wash your hands before providing care. 
c. Use first aid supplies, such as dressings and bandages, as a barrier wh...
As the only lifeguard performing CPR on a & year old child, you would perform 
cycles of: - ANS 30 chest compressions and 2 ventilations 
Which of the following would you identify as the universal sign that a conscious 
person is choking? - ANS Clutching the throat 
The patron asks, "Should we mo...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartAs the only lifeguard performing CPR on a & year old child, you would perform 
cycles of: - ANS 30 chest compressions and 2 ventilations 
Which of the following would you identify as the universal sign that a conscious 
person is choking? - ANS Clutching the throat 
The patron asks, "Should we mo...
Which pulse indicates hypoxia? - ANS 100% 
Which is used to set liters per minute? - ANS Flow meters 
delivery devices that delivers highest oxygen - ANS BVM ( Bag 
valve mask) 
Which is least likely to interfere with accuracy of pulse measuring - 
ANS Staying Still 
Which is most important to do ...
Preview 1 out of 2 pages
Add to cartWhich pulse indicates hypoxia? - ANS 100% 
Which is used to set liters per minute? - ANS Flow meters 
delivery devices that delivers highest oxygen - ANS BVM ( Bag 
valve mask) 
Which is least likely to interfere with accuracy of pulse measuring - 
ANS Staying Still 
Which is most important to do ...
CPR Should be performed on a victim who is... - ANS In Cardiac Arrest or 
unconscious with an obstructed airway. 
After an AED says "No Shock Advised," it is best to... - ANS Perform CPR for 
about 2 minutes. 
When giving chest compressions to an adult, how do you position your hands? - 
ANS He...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartCPR Should be performed on a victim who is... - ANS In Cardiac Arrest or 
unconscious with an obstructed airway. 
After an AED says "No Shock Advised," it is best to... - ANS Perform CPR for 
about 2 minutes. 
When giving chest compressions to an adult, how do you position your hands? - 
ANS He...
How can you best protect yourself from possible bloodborne pathogen transmission 
when providing care? 
a. Ask the victim first if they have any communicable diseases. 
b. Thoroughly wash your hands before providing care. 
c. Use first aid supplies, such as dressings and bandages, as a barrier wh...
Preview 3 out of 23 pages
Add to cartHow can you best protect yourself from possible bloodborne pathogen transmission 
when providing care? 
a. Ask the victim first if they have any communicable diseases. 
b. Thoroughly wash your hands before providing care. 
c. Use first aid supplies, such as dressings and bandages, as a barrier wh...
Central obesity, "moon" face, and dorsocervical fat pad are associated with: 
A. Metabolic syndrome 
B. Unilateral pheochromocytoma 
C. Cushing's syndrome 
D. None of the above - CORRECT ANS C. Cushing's syndrome 
An elderly man is started on lisinopril and hydrochlorhiazide for hypertension. Th...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartCentral obesity, "moon" face, and dorsocervical fat pad are associated with: 
A. Metabolic syndrome 
B. Unilateral pheochromocytoma 
C. Cushing's syndrome 
D. None of the above - CORRECT ANS C. Cushing's syndrome 
An elderly man is started on lisinopril and hydrochlorhiazide for hypertension. Th...
which pacemaker will be given for low ejection fraction (<30%) instead of 
dysrythmias and how does it help increase CO? - ANSWER - biventricular 
- it contracts the left and right ventricle at the same time 
what are you at risk for later in life when you have low heart rate? - ANSWER 
hypert...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartwhich pacemaker will be given for low ejection fraction (<30%) instead of 
dysrythmias and how does it help increase CO? - ANSWER - biventricular 
- it contracts the left and right ventricle at the same time 
what are you at risk for later in life when you have low heart rate? - ANSWER 
hypert...
BMI (body mass index) - ANSWER a measure of body weight relative to height 
(in kg) 
Weight is - ANSWER rounded up 
Height is - ANSWER rounded down 
What type of patients are weighed daily? - ANSWER Cardiac, cancer, etc. 
General Survey - ANSWER physical appearance, body structure, mobility, 
beha...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartBMI (body mass index) - ANSWER a measure of body weight relative to height 
(in kg) 
Weight is - ANSWER rounded up 
Height is - ANSWER rounded down 
What type of patients are weighed daily? - ANSWER Cardiac, cancer, etc. 
General Survey - ANSWER physical appearance, body structure, mobility, 
beha...
1. The nurse is caring for a client with hypovolemic shock. The familymember asks why the fluids 
are being warmed. What is the 
Best response by the nurse? 
“to prevent complications from hypothermia” 
2. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted client diagnosed with acutekidney injury. The nu...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cart1. The nurse is caring for a client with hypovolemic shock. The familymember asks why the fluids 
are being warmed. What is the 
Best response by the nurse? 
“to prevent complications from hypothermia” 
2. The nurse is caring for a newly admitted client diagnosed with acutekidney injury. The nu...
nt. 
B 
Shame causes a person to perceive self as a failure and guilt causes avoidance of 
. 
treatment. 
C 
Guilt causes a person to perceive himself as a loser and shame drives a person to 
. 
avoid treatment. 
D 
Shame drives avoidance from treatment, Guilt often motivates a person to seek 
. 
tr...
Preview 4 out of 86 pages
Add to cartnt. 
B 
Shame causes a person to perceive self as a failure and guilt causes avoidance of 
. 
treatment. 
C 
Guilt causes a person to perceive himself as a loser and shame drives a person to 
. 
avoid treatment. 
D 
Shame drives avoidance from treatment, Guilt often motivates a person to seek 
. 
tr...
CNA Written Exam Questions (from Prometric 
CNA Practice Exams) 2023 COMPLETE 
QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS RATED 
(A+) 
VERIFIED 
 
1. When providing foot care, the nurse aide observes an open sore on the 
resident's foot. The nurse aide should? 
Pat gently to dry and cover with a dry dressing bef...
Preview 4 out of 67 pages
Add to cartCNA Written Exam Questions (from Prometric 
CNA Practice Exams) 2023 COMPLETE 
QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS RATED 
(A+) 
VERIFIED 
 
1. When providing foot care, the nurse aide observes an open sore on the 
resident's foot. The nurse aide should? 
Pat gently to dry and cover with a dry dressing bef...
NR302 EXAM 1 2023 QUESTIONS WITH 
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS GRADED A+ 
ABCDE of skin lesion assessment - ANSWER Asymmetry-not regular, round or 
oval, mishaped 
Border irregularity- ragged edges 
Color variation- brown, black blue, red 
Diameter- 6 mm plus can be malanoma 
Elevation- Changes w/ time 
Vi...
Preview 3 out of 20 pages
Add to cartNR302 EXAM 1 2023 QUESTIONS WITH 
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS GRADED A+ 
ABCDE of skin lesion assessment - ANSWER Asymmetry-not regular, round or 
oval, mishaped 
Border irregularity- ragged edges 
Color variation- brown, black blue, red 
Diameter- 6 mm plus can be malanoma 
Elevation- Changes w/ time 
Vi...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartNSG 6440 PREDICTOR TEST 2023 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY PASSED WITH A+ | Verified 
1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that has 
persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP 
suspects monon...
Preview 4 out of 160 pages
Add to cartNSG 6440 PREDICTOR TEST 2023 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY PASSED WITH A+ | Verified 
1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that has 
persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP 
suspects monon...
NSG 533 ADV PHARM: MODULE 1: GI: 
CHP 17 2023 VERIFIED QUESTIONS 
AND ANSWERS ALREADY PASSED 
 
Which drug class is most effective in treating erosive lesions:? - CORRECT ANS 
PPIs 
Name 4 H2RAs: - CORRECT ANS Cimetidine (Tagamet) 
Famotidine (Pepcid) 
Ranitidine (Zantac) 
Nizatidine (Axid) 
What...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartNSG 533 ADV PHARM: MODULE 1: GI: 
CHP 17 2023 VERIFIED QUESTIONS 
AND ANSWERS ALREADY PASSED 
 
Which drug class is most effective in treating erosive lesions:? - CORRECT ANS 
PPIs 
Name 4 H2RAs: - CORRECT ANS Cimetidine (Tagamet) 
Famotidine (Pepcid) 
Ranitidine (Zantac) 
Nizatidine (Axid) 
What...
Which of the following SSRIs requires up to a 5-week washout period because of 
the 
long half-life of its potent active metabolite? 
A. Escitalopram 
B. Fluvoxamine 
C. Fluoxetine 
D. Sertraline - CORRECT ANS C 
Which of the following symptoms is most likely to improve within approximately 1 
wee...
Preview 3 out of 21 pages
Add to cartWhich of the following SSRIs requires up to a 5-week washout period because of 
the 
long half-life of its potent active metabolite? 
A. Escitalopram 
B. Fluvoxamine 
C. Fluoxetine 
D. Sertraline - CORRECT ANS C 
Which of the following symptoms is most likely to improve within approximately 1 
wee...
Seven specialized cellular functions: - ANSWER movement, conductivity, 
metabolic absorption, secretion, excretion, respiration, and reproduction 
Nucleus - ANSWER aids in cell division and control of genetic info, contains 
DNA (think the egg yolk) 
Ribosomes - ANSWER RNA-protein complexes; float...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cartSeven specialized cellular functions: - ANSWER movement, conductivity, 
metabolic absorption, secretion, excretion, respiration, and reproduction 
Nucleus - ANSWER aids in cell division and control of genetic info, contains 
DNA (think the egg yolk) 
Ribosomes - ANSWER RNA-protein complexes; float...
NIMS Management Characteristic includes documents that record and 
communicate incident objectives, tactics, and assignments for operations and 
support? - ANSWER Incident Action planning 
Which ICS structure enables different jurisdictions to jointly manage and direct 
incident activities with a...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartNIMS Management Characteristic includes documents that record and 
communicate incident objectives, tactics, and assignments for operations and 
support? - ANSWER Incident Action planning 
Which ICS structure enables different jurisdictions to jointly manage and direct 
incident activities with a...
Download immediately available after purchase
Preview 4 out of 123 pages
Add to cartDownload immediately available after purchase
Chamberlain nr599 Final exam GraDeD a+ 
Smart documentation forms - ANSWER forms that are tailored based on patient data to 
emphasize data elements pertinent to the patient's conditions and healthcare needs. 
Order sets, care plans and protocols - ANSWER Structured approaches to encourage correc...
Preview 3 out of 18 pages
Add to cartChamberlain nr599 Final exam GraDeD a+ 
Smart documentation forms - ANSWER forms that are tailored based on patient data to 
emphasize data elements pertinent to the patient's conditions and healthcare needs. 
Order sets, care plans and protocols - ANSWER Structured approaches to encourage correc...
Chamberlain nr599 midterm nursing 
informatiCs latest| graded a+ 
general principles of nursing informatics - ANSWER essential skills related to informatics deemed 
appropriate 
nursing informatics - ANSWER integrates nursing science with multiple information and analytical 
sciences to identify...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartChamberlain nr599 midterm nursing 
informatiCs latest| graded a+ 
general principles of nursing informatics - ANSWER essential skills related to informatics deemed 
appropriate 
nursing informatics - ANSWER integrates nursing science with multiple information and analytical 
sciences to identify...
Ethical Decision Making - ANSWER -Process that requires striking a balance between science 
and morality 
-Making informed choices about ethical dilemmas based on a set of standards differentiating right 
from wrong. 
Ethical Decision Making Process - ANSWER 1. Identify the ethical dilemma 
2. Dis...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartEthical Decision Making - ANSWER -Process that requires striking a balance between science 
and morality 
-Making informed choices about ethical dilemmas based on a set of standards differentiating right 
from wrong. 
Ethical Decision Making Process - ANSWER 1. Identify the ethical dilemma 
2. Dis...
knowledge - ANSWER The awareness and understanding of a set of information and the ways 
that information can be made useful to support a specific task or reach a decision. 
widsom - ANSWER knowledge applied in a practical way or translated into actions: the use of 
knowledge and experience to hei...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartknowledge - ANSWER The awareness and understanding of a set of information and the ways 
that information can be made useful to support a specific task or reach a decision. 
widsom - ANSWER knowledge applied in a practical way or translated into actions: the use of 
knowledge and experience to hei...
CHAMBERLAIN NuRsINg INfoRMAtICs MIdtERM: 
NR599 EXAM LAtEst| gRAdEd A+ 
What are the general principles of nursing informatics? - ANSWER -Integrates nursing science 
with multiple information and analytical sciences to identify, manage, define, and communicate data, 
information, knowledge, wisd...
Preview 2 out of 7 pages
Add to cartCHAMBERLAIN NuRsINg INfoRMAtICs MIdtERM: 
NR599 EXAM LAtEst| gRAdEd A+ 
What are the general principles of nursing informatics? - ANSWER -Integrates nursing science 
with multiple information and analytical sciences to identify, manage, define, and communicate data, 
information, knowledge, wisd...
nformatics - ANSWER science and art of turning data into information 
what concepts/sciences does informatics apply (3) - ANSWER computer science 
cognitive science 
information science 
What does computer science study - ANSWER the theory of underpinning information and 
computation and their impl...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartnformatics - ANSWER science and art of turning data into information 
what concepts/sciences does informatics apply (3) - ANSWER computer science 
cognitive science 
information science 
What does computer science study - ANSWER the theory of underpinning information and 
computation and their impl...
NREMT TRAUMA EXAM 2023 QUESTIONS 
AND ANSWERS 100% CORRECT- GRADED A+ 
Which of the following patients involved in a car crash has the most severe 
findings? 
A.A 32-year-old female complains of head and chest pain, she was ejected from 
the vehicle, her vital signs are P 104, R 18, and BP 116/92 ...
Preview 4 out of 40 pages
Add to cartNREMT TRAUMA EXAM 2023 QUESTIONS 
AND ANSWERS 100% CORRECT- GRADED A+ 
Which of the following patients involved in a car crash has the most severe 
findings? 
A.A 32-year-old female complains of head and chest pain, she was ejected from 
the vehicle, her vital signs are P 104, R 18, and BP 116/92 ...
1. The action potential is ...: a result of the movement of ions 
2. True or False 
The cell body refers to the part of the neurons that begin at the dendrites and 
extend to the axon terminal: False 
3. True or False 
The membrane potential (resting potential) is largely set by the Na-K ATPase 
pum...
Preview 2 out of 15 pages
Add to cart1. The action potential is ...: a result of the movement of ions 
2. True or False 
The cell body refers to the part of the neurons that begin at the dendrites and 
extend to the axon terminal: False 
3. True or False 
The membrane potential (resting potential) is largely set by the Na-K ATPase 
pum...
BIO 181 ASU EXAM 3 2023 (57 SETS) Q&A 
GRADED A+ 
T or F: Potassium ions are at high concentrations inside of cells, including neurons 
- ANSWER True 
The action potential is a result of: - ANSWER the movement of ions 
The post-synaptic cell can be: - ANSWER in glands, muscle cells and neurons 
Th...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartBIO 181 ASU EXAM 3 2023 (57 SETS) Q&A 
GRADED A+ 
T or F: Potassium ions are at high concentrations inside of cells, including neurons 
- ANSWER True 
The action potential is a result of: - ANSWER the movement of ions 
The post-synaptic cell can be: - ANSWER in glands, muscle cells and neurons 
Th...
Specifically in a cell where does Glycolysis occur? - ANSWER Cytoplasm 
T/F The cell does not need ATP to survive. - ANSWER False 
Where is carbon dioxide produced? - ANSWER Mitochondrial matrix 
T/F The citric acid/Kreb's cycle breaks down carbohydrates into CO2. - ANSWER 
True 
T/F FADH2 results...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartSpecifically in a cell where does Glycolysis occur? - ANSWER Cytoplasm 
T/F The cell does not need ATP to survive. - ANSWER False 
Where is carbon dioxide produced? - ANSWER Mitochondrial matrix 
T/F The citric acid/Kreb's cycle breaks down carbohydrates into CO2. - ANSWER 
True 
T/F FADH2 results...
Which strand is produced more rapidly? - ANSWER Leading strand 
During DNA replication in the lagging strand there is production of this component? 
- ANSWER Okazaki fragment 
How many "stop" codons exist? - ANSWER 3 
The double helix of DNA is wrapped about 1¾ times around which of these 
comp...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartWhich strand is produced more rapidly? - ANSWER Leading strand 
During DNA replication in the lagging strand there is production of this component? 
- ANSWER Okazaki fragment 
How many "stop" codons exist? - ANSWER 3 
The double helix of DNA is wrapped about 1¾ times around which of these 
comp...
The association of ribosomes with _____ invaginations would support the _____ 
theory. - ANSWER membrane, endomembrane 
After a cell is pancake shaped in a cell culture dish, the order of events that occurs 
as a cell walks is? - ANSWER filapodia, lamellipodia, cell muscle, retraction 
fiber 
T/F...
Preview 2 out of 9 pages
Add to cartThe association of ribosomes with _____ invaginations would support the _____ 
theory. - ANSWER membrane, endomembrane 
After a cell is pancake shaped in a cell culture dish, the order of events that occurs 
as a cell walks is? - ANSWER filapodia, lamellipodia, cell muscle, retraction 
fiber 
T/F...
Primitive prokaryote cell evolved into_________ - ANSWER pro-eukaryotic cell 
Eukaryote - ANSWER single celled organism 
Paramecium - ANSWER distant ancestor of our cells, limited by # of 
biomolecular machines within itself 
What does a paramecium use cilia for? - ANSWER to move 
What was the prec...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartPrimitive prokaryote cell evolved into_________ - ANSWER pro-eukaryotic cell 
Eukaryote - ANSWER single celled organism 
Paramecium - ANSWER distant ancestor of our cells, limited by # of 
biomolecular machines within itself 
What does a paramecium use cilia for? - ANSWER to move 
What was the prec...
3x sold
NAMs Menopause Certification Exam 2023/2024 With complete solution Verified 
Climacteric phase - CORRECT ANSWER The period of endrocrinologic, 
somatic, and transitory psychologic changes that occur around the time of 
menopause. 
Early menopause - CORRECT ANSWER LMP before age 45 
Late menopause ...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartNAMs Menopause Certification Exam 2023/2024 With complete solution Verified 
Climacteric phase - CORRECT ANSWER The period of endrocrinologic, 
somatic, and transitory psychologic changes that occur around the time of 
menopause. 
Early menopause - CORRECT ANSWER LMP before age 45 
Late menopause ...
NR503 EPIDEMIOLOGY FINAL-MIDTERM 
2023 (190 SETS) Q$A 100% CORRECT GRADED 
A+ 
Common risk factors - ANSWER unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, tobacco use 
Childhood risk - ANSWER conditions before birth and early in childhood 
influence health in adult life. 
Risk accumulation - ANSWER Ageing i...
Preview 3 out of 21 pages
Add to cartNR503 EPIDEMIOLOGY FINAL-MIDTERM 
2023 (190 SETS) Q$A 100% CORRECT GRADED 
A+ 
Common risk factors - ANSWER unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, tobacco use 
Childhood risk - ANSWER conditions before birth and early in childhood 
influence health in adult life. 
Risk accumulation - ANSWER Ageing i...
What two elements are necessary to a life insurance contract to have a legal purpose? - 
CORRECT ANSWER 1. Insurable Interest 
2. Consent 
Insurance is a contract that protects the insured from what? - CORRECT ANSWER 
Loss 
What Type of Risk is Insurable? - CORRECT ANSWER Pure 
What is the term fo...
Preview 1 out of 4 pages
Add to cartWhat two elements are necessary to a life insurance contract to have a legal purpose? - 
CORRECT ANSWER 1. Insurable Interest 
2. Consent 
Insurance is a contract that protects the insured from what? - CORRECT ANSWER 
Loss 
What Type of Risk is Insurable? - CORRECT ANSWER Pure 
What is the term fo...
Apoptosis - ANSWER programmed death such as inflammation 
Necrosis - ANSWER cellular injury such as MI, hypoxia 
Atrophy - ANSWER physiologic atrophy of the thymus gland in childhood 
Hypertrophy - ANSWER increase in cell size 
Physiologic hypertrophy would be increase in myocardial cell size r/t en...
Preview 2 out of 6 pages
Add to cartApoptosis - ANSWER programmed death such as inflammation 
Necrosis - ANSWER cellular injury such as MI, hypoxia 
Atrophy - ANSWER physiologic atrophy of the thymus gland in childhood 
Hypertrophy - ANSWER increase in cell size 
Physiologic hypertrophy would be increase in myocardial cell size r/t en...
Which of the following SSRIs requires up to a 5-week washout period because of the 
long half-life of its potent active metabolite? 
A. Escitalopram 
B. Fluvoxamine 
C. Fluoxetine 
D. Sertraline - CORRECT ANSWER C 
Which of the following symptoms is most likely to improve within approximately 1 week...
Preview 3 out of 18 pages
Add to cartWhich of the following SSRIs requires up to a 5-week washout period because of the 
long half-life of its potent active metabolite? 
A. Escitalopram 
B. Fluvoxamine 
C. Fluoxetine 
D. Sertraline - CORRECT ANSWER C 
Which of the following symptoms is most likely to improve within approximately 1 week...
1. Susan Smith is a participant in an Anatomy and Physiology lab class. Susan walked into lab 
today carrying a bagged lunch that she brought to eat following class. She has long blonde hair 
that is not pulled back. Today in class, you are reviewing basic microscopy and you notice that 
Susan’...
Preview 4 out of 35 pages
Add to cart1. Susan Smith is a participant in an Anatomy and Physiology lab class. Susan walked into lab 
today carrying a bagged lunch that she brought to eat following class. She has long blonde hair 
that is not pulled back. Today in class, you are reviewing basic microscopy and you notice that 
Susan’...
BIOD 151 FALL 2021 MODULE 1 EXAM 
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A+ 
M1: Exam 
Submitted Oct 26 This attempt took 36 minutes. 
1. What is the study of the structure of the human body? 
• Anatomy 
2. is an example of the organ level of organization 
in the human body. 
• The liver 
3. What is the ...
Preview 2 out of 8 pages
Add to cartBIOD 151 FALL 2021 MODULE 1 EXAM 
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS GRADED A+ 
M1: Exam 
Submitted Oct 26 This attempt took 36 minutes. 
1. What is the study of the structure of the human body? 
• Anatomy 
2. is an example of the organ level of organization 
in the human body. 
• The liver 
3. What is the ...
Lead-based paint (LBP) - CORRECT ANS Any varnish, shallac, or coating that contains 
either- 1.0 mg/cm2 - 0.5 % by weight - 5000 ppm - Older instruments could not read accurately 
at 0.7, so the lead standard was updated to 1.0 
Dust sample clearance values - CORRECT ANS - Floors: 40 μg/ft2 > ...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartLead-based paint (LBP) - CORRECT ANS Any varnish, shallac, or coating that contains 
either- 1.0 mg/cm2 - 0.5 % by weight - 5000 ppm - Older instruments could not read accurately 
at 0.7, so the lead standard was updated to 1.0 
Dust sample clearance values - CORRECT ANS - Floors: 40 μg/ft2 > ...
ead based paint - CORRECT ANS 1mg/cm^2 or .5% by weight 
title X - CORRECT ANS aka Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act of 1992 
-shifted focus of federal legislation from acting on existing lead-based paint hazards to 
preventing new hazards from occurring 
-has regs governing the tr...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cartead based paint - CORRECT ANS 1mg/cm^2 or .5% by weight 
title X - CORRECT ANS aka Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act of 1992 
-shifted focus of federal legislation from acting on existing lead-based paint hazards to 
preventing new hazards from occurring 
-has regs governing the tr...
Lead Inspector - CORRECT ANS A certified individual who conducts a surface-by-surface 
investigation to determine the presence of lead-based paint. 
Lead Risk Assessor Job Description - CORRECT ANS Determining the existence, nature, 
severity, and location of lead-based paint hazards in an entire ...
Preview 4 out of 51 pages
Add to cartLead Inspector - CORRECT ANS A certified individual who conducts a surface-by-surface 
investigation to determine the presence of lead-based paint. 
Lead Risk Assessor Job Description - CORRECT ANS Determining the existence, nature, 
severity, and location of lead-based paint hazards in an entire ...
1. coup-contrecoup injury: Dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury 
occurs at the point of impact; contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, 
as the brain rebounds. 
2. Scalp laceration: what, effect, management: Primary head injury 
profuse bleeding - signs of hypovol...
Preview 4 out of 111 pages
Add to cart1. coup-contrecoup injury: Dual impacting of the brain into the skull; coup injury 
occurs at the point of impact; contrecoup injury occurs on the opposite side of impact, 
as the brain rebounds. 
2. Scalp laceration: what, effect, management: Primary head injury 
profuse bleeding - signs of hypovol...
1. Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?: B) Gender 
Discordance 
2. Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? 
Select all that apply: Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher 
potency typical antipsychotics 
3. Antipsycho...
Preview 4 out of 41 pages
Add to cart1. Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?: B) Gender 
Discordance 
2. Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? 
Select all that apply: Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher 
potency typical antipsychotics 
3. Antipsycho...
1. Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?: B) Gender 
Discordance 
2. Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? 
Select all that apply: Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher 
potency typical antipsychotics 
3. Antipsycho...
Preview 4 out of 69 pages
Add to cart1. Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?: B) Gender 
Discordance 
2. Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? 
Select all that apply: Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher 
potency typical antipsychotics 
3. Antipsycho...
1. Stages of CKD: o Stages - 5 stages 80 - 120 ml/min 
§ 1: Kidney damage (protein in the urine) and Normal GFR > 90 
§ 2: Mild decrease in GFR 60 - 89 
§ 3a: Mild-Mod. GFR 45 - 59 
§ 3b: Mod-severe GFR 30 - 44 
§ 4: Severe decrease GFR 15 - 29 
§ 5: ESRD GFR < 15, uremia, cardiovascular...
Preview 4 out of 101 pages
Add to cart1. Stages of CKD: o Stages - 5 stages 80 - 120 ml/min 
§ 1: Kidney damage (protein in the urine) and Normal GFR > 90 
§ 2: Mild decrease in GFR 60 - 89 
§ 3a: Mild-Mod. GFR 45 - 59 
§ 3b: Mod-severe GFR 30 - 44 
§ 4: Severe decrease GFR 15 - 29 
§ 5: ESRD GFR < 15, uremia, cardiovascular...
Surgery risk classes - CORRECT ANS Class 1: benefits outweigh risk, should 
be done 
Class 2a: reasonable to perform 
Class 2b: should be considered 
Class 3: rarely appropriate 
General rules for surgery: testing - CORRECT ANS ECG before surgery only if 
coronary disease, except when low risk sur...
Preview 4 out of 88 pages
Add to cartSurgery risk classes - CORRECT ANS Class 1: benefits outweigh risk, should 
be done 
Class 2a: reasonable to perform 
Class 2b: should be considered 
Class 3: rarely appropriate 
General rules for surgery: testing - CORRECT ANS ECG before surgery only if 
coronary disease, except when low risk sur...
1. Urine culture with UTI: 100.000 colonies in asymptomatic: bacteruria 
10 - 10.000 colonies in symptomatic patients but also pyuria 
pyuria: more than 10 leukocytes 
elevated erythrocytes with pyelonephritis 
WBC in urine 
false positive with tumor, urethritis and poor collection technique 
Repeat...
Preview 4 out of 51 pages
Add to cart1. Urine culture with UTI: 100.000 colonies in asymptomatic: bacteruria 
10 - 10.000 colonies in symptomatic patients but also pyuria 
pyuria: more than 10 leukocytes 
elevated erythrocytes with pyelonephritis 
WBC in urine 
false positive with tumor, urethritis and poor collection technique 
Repeat...
NRNP 6675-15 WEEK 6 
MIDTERM EXAM 
2023/2024 
(100% CORRECT 
ANSWERS)
Preview 3 out of 30 pages
Add to cartNRNP 6675-15 WEEK 6 
MIDTERM EXAM 
2023/2024 
(100% CORRECT 
ANSWERS)
1. The 1/2 life of lithium is about? 24 hours 
2. Fluoxetine is the SSRI with the WD risk? lowest due 
to long half life 
3. What antipsychotics are good for pts who miss doses of 
their meds? An-tipsychotics with long half-lives: 
1. Cariprazine(Vrylar): (2-4 days-active metabolites up to 3 
weeks)...
Preview 4 out of 38 pages
Add to cart1. The 1/2 life of lithium is about? 24 hours 
2. Fluoxetine is the SSRI with the WD risk? lowest due 
to long half life 
3. What antipsychotics are good for pts who miss doses of 
their meds? An-tipsychotics with long half-lives: 
1. Cariprazine(Vrylar): (2-4 days-active metabolites up to 3 
weeks)...
1. Vaccinations and immunosuppression. 2 keypoints: - give inactive agents 
instead of live agents 
- might not work as effectively 
2. live virus vaccine types: Virus: 
- measles 
- mumps 
- polio (oral) 
- rubella 
- varicella 
- yellow fever 
- herpes zoster 
Bacteria: 
- typhoid 
3. inactive vac...
Preview 3 out of 26 pages
Add to cart1. Vaccinations and immunosuppression. 2 keypoints: - give inactive agents 
instead of live agents 
- might not work as effectively 
2. live virus vaccine types: Virus: 
- measles 
- mumps 
- polio (oral) 
- rubella 
- varicella 
- yellow fever 
- herpes zoster 
Bacteria: 
- typhoid 
3. inactive vac...
Potassium - CORRECT ANS Select the serum assessment that is used when 
prescribing drugs to treat psychiatric disorders in psychosomatic patients 
Erickson - CORRECT ANS Select the theorist who developed the eight stages 
of the psychosocial life cycle 
Sexual abuse and Partner Betrayal - CORRECT ...
Preview 2 out of 12 pages
Add to cartPotassium - CORRECT ANS Select the serum assessment that is used when 
prescribing drugs to treat psychiatric disorders in psychosomatic patients 
Erickson - CORRECT ANS Select the theorist who developed the eight stages 
of the psychosocial life cycle 
Sexual abuse and Partner Betrayal - CORRECT ...
Describe cytochrome p450 system - CORRECT ANS Cytochrome p450 system 
is a series of enzymes used to metabolize medications 
Inhibitors - CORRECT ANS block metabolic activity from one or more CYP450 
enzymes 
Inducers - CORRECT ANS increase CYP450 enzyme activity by increasing 
enzyme synthesis 
...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartDescribe cytochrome p450 system - CORRECT ANS Cytochrome p450 system 
is a series of enzymes used to metabolize medications 
Inhibitors - CORRECT ANS block metabolic activity from one or more CYP450 
enzymes 
Inducers - CORRECT ANS increase CYP450 enzyme activity by increasing 
enzyme synthesis 
...
Central obesity, "moon" face, and dorsocervical fat pad are associated with: 
A. Metabolic syndrome 
B. Unilateral pheochromocytoma 
C. Cushing's syndrome 
D. None of the above - CORRECT ANS C. Cushing's syndrome 
An elderly man is started on lisinopril and hydrochlorhiazide for hypertension. Th...
Preview 2 out of 10 pages
Add to cartCentral obesity, "moon" face, and dorsocervical fat pad are associated with: 
A. Metabolic syndrome 
B. Unilateral pheochromocytoma 
C. Cushing's syndrome 
D. None of the above - CORRECT ANS C. Cushing's syndrome 
An elderly man is started on lisinopril and hydrochlorhiazide for hypertension. Th...
2 year old - CORRECT ANS speaks in 2 to 3 word sentences (family 
understands) 
Understands simple commands 
knows first name 
can copy straight line 
easily frustrated 
goes up stairs using same foot 
3 year old - CORRECT ANS speaks in complete sentences 
speech understood by most strangers 
knows...
Preview 2 out of 5 pages
Add to cart2 year old - CORRECT ANS speaks in 2 to 3 word sentences (family 
understands) 
Understands simple commands 
knows first name 
can copy straight line 
easily frustrated 
goes up stairs using same foot 
3 year old - CORRECT ANS speaks in complete sentences 
speech understood by most strangers 
knows...
1. patient report that she is taking kava kava regularly for anxiety with theresults. 
What should the nurse practitioners evaluate? 
a. Liver function studies 
2. A person with 20/80 vision: HAS POORER VISION THAN SOMEONE 
WITH 20/40VISION 
3. One exception to the recommendation to limit dietary f...
Preview 4 out of 139 pages
Add to cart1. patient report that she is taking kava kava regularly for anxiety with theresults. 
What should the nurse practitioners evaluate? 
a. Liver function studies 
2. A person with 20/80 vision: HAS POORER VISION THAN SOMEONE 
WITH 20/40VISION 
3. One exception to the recommendation to limit dietary f...
Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by: 
1 
. 
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing 
2 
. 
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration 
3 
. 
The State Board of Nursing for each state 
4 
. 
The State Board of Pharmacy 
2. The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced ...
Preview 4 out of 123 pages
Add to cartNurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by: 
1 
. 
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing 
2 
. 
The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration 
3 
. 
The State Board of Nursing for each state 
4 
. 
The State Board of Pharmacy 
2. The benefits to the patient of having an Advanced ...
1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that has 
persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP 
suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate intervention? 
a. Palpate the lymph nod...
Preview 4 out of 160 pages
Add to cart1) A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that has 
persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP 
suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate intervention? 
a. Palpate the lymph nod...
Climacteric phase - CORRECT ANSWER The period of endrocrinologic, 
somatic, and transitory psychologic changes that occur around the time of 
menopause. 
Early menopause - CORRECT ANSWER LMP before age 45 
Late menopause - CORRECT ANSWER LMP after age 54 
Primary ovarian insufficiency - CORRECT AN...
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Add to cartClimacteric phase - CORRECT ANSWER The period of endrocrinologic, 
somatic, and transitory psychologic changes that occur around the time of 
menopause. 
Early menopause - CORRECT ANSWER LMP before age 45 
Late menopause - CORRECT ANSWER LMP after age 54 
Primary ovarian insufficiency - CORRECT AN...
Which of the following professional organizations best supports critical care nursing 
practice? 
a. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses 
b. American Heart Association 
c. American Nurses Association 
d. Society of Critical Care Medicine - ANSWER a 
The synergy model of practice focuses on...
Preview 4 out of 65 pages
Add to cartWhich of the following professional organizations best supports critical care nursing 
practice? 
a. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses 
b. American Heart Association 
c. American Nurses Association 
d. Society of Critical Care Medicine - ANSWER a 
The synergy model of practice focuses on...
Texas Life and Health Insurance Exam 
2024 Questions And Answers with 
complete solution (Graded A+) 
 
Texas Life and Health Insurance Exam 
2024 Questions And Answers with 
complete solution (Graded A+)
Preview 3 out of 28 pages
Add to cartTexas Life and Health Insurance Exam 
2024 Questions And Answers with 
complete solution (Graded A+) 
 
Texas Life and Health Insurance Exam 
2024 Questions And Answers with 
complete solution (Graded A+)
Stuvia customers have reviewed more than 700,000 summaries. This how you know that you are buying the best documents.
You can quickly pay through credit card or Stuvia-credit for the summaries. There is no membership needed.
Your fellow students write the study notes themselves, which is why the documents are always reliable and up-to-date. This ensures you quickly get to the core!
You get a PDF, available immediately after your purchase. The purchased document is accessible anytime, anywhere and indefinitely through your profile.
Our satisfaction guarantee ensures that you always find a study document that suits you well. You fill out a form, and our customer service team takes care of the rest.
Stuvia is a marketplace, so you are not buying this document from us, but from seller Smartprof. Stuvia facilitates payment to the seller.
No, you only buy these notes for $1,000.68. You're not tied to anything after your purchase.
4.6 stars on Google & Trustpilot (+1000 reviews)
73918 documents were sold in the last 30 days
Founded in 2010, the go-to place to buy study notes for 14 years now