Rifampin - Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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Exam 3: NSG533/ NSG 533 (Latest 2023/ 2024 Update) Advanced Pharmacology Exam Review| Guide with Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct
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Exam 3: NSG533/ NSG 533 (Latest 2023/ 2024 Update) Advanced Pharmacology Exam Review| Guide with Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct 
 
Q: Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) 
 
 
Answer: 
Ipratropium 
 
 
 
Q: avoid co administration of ICS with which CYP3A4 inhibitors? (may cause cushing's) 
 
 
Answer: 
ritonavir, itraconazole, ketoconazole 
 
 
 
Q: lack of response to ICS may be indicative of what? 
 
 
Answer: 
CLCCl1 gene 
 
 
 
Q: LABAs 
 
 
Answer: 
Salmeterol 
Formotero...
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Naplex things to remember correctly answered 2023
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Naplex things to remember correctly answered 2023CYP INHIBITORS 
*G PACMAN* 
Grapefruit 
Protease inhibitors (Ritonavir) 
Azole antifungals 
C - cyclosporine, cimetidine, cobicistat 
Macrolides (NOT azithromycin) 
Amiodarone (and dronedarone) 
Non-DHP CCBs 
 
 
 
CYP INDUCERS 
*PS PORCS* 
Phenytoin 
Smoking 
Phenobarbital 
Oxcarbazepine (and eslicarbazepine) 
Rifampin 
Carbamazepine (also auto-inducer) 
St. Johns wort 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Digoxin Levels 
0.8-2 (Afib) 
0.5-0.9 (HF) 
Toxicity: 
Initial ...
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Exam 3: NUR 210/ NUR210 (Latest 2023/ 2024) Principles of Pharmacology Complete Exam| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Galen
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Exam 3: NUR 210/ NUR210 (Latest 2023/ 2024) Principles of Pharmacology Complete Exam| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Galen 
 
 
Q: Cardiac Selective Beta Blockers prototype/clinical indication? 
 
 
Answer: 
metoprolol 
hypertension 
 
 
 
Q: Cardiac Selective Beta Blockers side effects/adverse effects? 
 
 
Answer: 
fatigue, weakness, dizziness, headache, blurred vision 
 
bradycardia, hypotension, stroke, thrombocytopenia, DM 
 
 
 
Q: Cardiac Selective Beta Blockers considerati...
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ATI MEDICAL SURGICAL PROCTORED EXAM
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In extubating an Endtroacheal tube, what needs to be reported immedatiely? - answer-stridor 
 
Should pt decrease complex carbs for atherosceleoris? - answer-no, increase them 
 
What carb should a client with atherosceloris decrease? - answer-simple sugars 
 
Is MRSA airborne or contact? - answer-contact 
 
What does phenyotoin do to hepatic enzymes (for seizures meds)? - answer-it decreases effectiveness 
 
What should you tell the pt not to take with ciprofloxacin? - answer-magnesium containg...
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RN ATI PHARMACOLOGY 2019 EXAM WITH NGN A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen? ANSWER-a. The client has a n
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RN ATI PHARMACOLOGY 2019 EXAM WITH NGN 
 
A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid and rifampin. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is adhering to the medication regimen? 
ANSWER-a. The client has a negative sputum culture 
 
A client is caring for a client who develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV administration. After assessing the client's respiratory status and stopping the medication infusion. Which of the following actions should...
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Maryville NURS 615 Pharm Exam 2 Questions and Answers Already Passed
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Maryville NURS 615 Pharm Exam 2 Questions and Answers Already Passed 
Carbamazepine (Tegretol) can sometimes show subtherapeutic range due to what? Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels despite good compliance 
What are the black box warnings for Carbamazepine? Dermatologic reactions 1. Steven's Johnson 2. Toxic epidermal necrolysis 
What lab test should be ordered for patients on Carbamazepine? CBC every 3-4 months because it can cause decreased WBC, decreased platelet...
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HESI Pharm Review Questions
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1. The practical nurse interprets the client’s PPD as a positive skin test. Which drug 
is considered the primary prophylaxis for a client exposed to active tuberculosis? 
a. Isoniazid 
b. Rifampin 
c. Acyclovir 
d. Griseofulvin 
Rationale: 
Isoniazid is highly specific for Mycobacterium tuberculosis and is the 
primary drug of choice for clients with positive PPD skin tests. 
2. Phenazopyridine is commonly prescribed for clients with urinary tract infections 
(UTI). Which statement by the pra...
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ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM 2023 WITH NGN QUESTIONS 2 VERSIONS EACH WITH 70 QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS / SCORED A+
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ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM 2023 WITH 
NGN QUESTIONS 2 VERSIONS EACH WITH 70 QUESTIONS 
AND VERIFIED ANSWERS / SCORED A+ 
1.) A nurse is assessing a client who isreceiving intravenoustherapy. The nurse should identify 
which of the following findings as a manifestation of fluid volume excess? 
a. Decreased bowel sounds 
b. Distended neck veins 
c. Bilateral muscle weakness 
d. Thread pulse 
2.) A nurse is caring for a client who has hyponatremia and is receiving an infusion of a prescribed 
...
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2023 HESI RN Exit Maternity Exam Guaranteed A+ Actual Questions and Answers, Complete 100%
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2023 HESI RN Exit Maternity Exam Guaranteed A+ Actual Questions and Answers, Complete 100% 
 
1. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the fetal heartbeat?: 
Answer: 
Electronic Doppler 
2. A pregnant woman reports to the clinic complaining of loss of appetite, 
weight loss, and fatigue, and tuberculosis is suspected. A sputum culture 
reveals Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The nurse, providing instructions to the 
mother regarding therapeutic management of the disease, tells the m...
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NSG552 Psychopharmacology Exam 1 |91 questions and answers.
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What are the 6 general principles of psychopharmacological treatment? 
Safety 
Tolerability 
Efficacy 
Practicality 
Treatment accessibility 
Treatment compliance 
 
 
 
Pharmacokinetics 
How the drug moves in the body. (ex. Where is it absorbed? How and where is it metabolized? Where is it excreted?) 
 
 
 
Pharmacodynamics 
What the drug does to the body. (consider mechanism of action) 
 
 
 
Define First-generation antipsychotics 
Referred to as Typical Antipsychotics. Most have strong bond w...
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